UPSC Prelims GS Paper I · 2019

104 questions
2 hours
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99 with key learnings

Data as of 11 Oct 2026. Also: Booster PYQs of 2019 by subject.

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1.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Consider the following statements:
1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Trading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The correct answer is (D) — 1, 2 and 3.

All three are features of Mahayana Buddhism, which emerged around the 1st century AD.

Deification of the Buddha (statement 1) — Mahayana started worshipping Buddha as a god, unlike earlier traditions that saw him as a teacher.

The Bodhisattva path (statement 2) — Mahayana emphasizes becoming a Bodhisattva (one who delays their own nirvana to help others achieve it).

Image worship and rituals (statement 3) — Mahayana introduced idol worship of Buddha and Bodhisattvas.

Tip:

Mahayana = Buddha as God

Bodhisattva ideal

Image worship.

Hinayana/Theravada = Buddha as teacher, no idol worship.
Key learnings →Mahajanapadas, Buddhism, Jainism and Pre-Mauryan India
2.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
1. AChanhudaro
2. BKot Diji
3. CSohgaura
4. DDesalpur
Show answer
Answer: (C) Sohgaura
The correct answer is (C) — Sohgaura.

Sohgaura (in Uttar Pradesh) is associated with an ancient copper plate inscription from the Mauryan period, NOT the Harappan civilization.

Chanhudaro (Sindh), Kot Diji (Sindh), and Desalpur (Gujarat) are all Harappan/Indus Valley Civilization sites.

Tip:

Sohgaura = Mauryan-era copper plate.

The other three are Harappan sites.
Key learnings →Pre-History and Harappan Civilization
3.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 only.

Statement 1 is correct — in the Delhi Sultanate's revenue administration, the officer in charge of revenue collection was called 'Amil'.

Statement 2 is wrong — the Iqta system was NOT an ancient Indian institution. It was an Arabic/Islamic institution borrowed from the Caliphate and introduced in India by the Turkish rulers.

Statement 3 is wrong — Mir Bakshi (head of the military department) was a post in Akbar's Mughal administration, NOT during the Khalji Sultanate.

Tip:

Amil = revenue collector (Sultanate).

Iqta = Arabic system, not Indian.

Mir Bakshi = Mughal (Akbar), not Khalji.
Key learnings →The Delhi Sultanate (1206-1526)
4.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
With refence to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. AIt was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
2. BIt was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar region of the Gupta Empire.
3. CThe forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
4. DThe eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Show answer
Answer: (A) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
The correct answer is (A) — It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

During the Gupta period (300-600 CE), 'Vishti' (forced labour) became more common.

It is mentioned alongside regular taxes in Gupta land grant inscriptions, which tells us that the state treated it as a form of tax — people paid with their labour instead of money.

Tip:

Vishti = forced labour used as a form of taxation during the Gupta period.
Key learnings →The Gupta Empire
5.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
1. AKanganahalli
2. BSanchi
3. CShahbazgarhi
4. DSohgaura
Show answer
Answer: (A) Kanganahalli
The correct answer is (A) — Kanganahalli.

Kanganahalli, located near Sannati in Karnataka, is the only place where the inscription 'Ranyo Ashoka' (meaning 'King Ashoka') was found alongside a stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka.

This makes it unique because most Ashokan inscriptions use the title 'Devanampiya Piyadasi' rather than his actual name.

Tip:

Kanganahalli = only site with both Ashoka's name ('Ranyo Ashoka')

AND his stone portrait.
Key learnings →The Mauryan Empire
6.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
1. AHumayun
2. BAkbar
3. CJahangir
4. DShah Jahan
Show answer
Answer: (C) Jahangir
The correct answer is (C) — Jahangir.

While Akbar patronized large illustrated manuscripts like the Hamza-nama (1400 pages!), his son Jahangir shifted the focus to individual portraits and album paintings.

Jahangir had a keen eye for detail and a love for nature — he preferred realistic portraits of people, birds, and animals over large storytelling manuscripts.

Tip:

Akbar = large illustrated manuscripts.

Jahangir = individual portraits and albums.

Shah Jahan = architecture (Taj Mahal).
Key learnings →The Mughal Empire
7.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
1. ATansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
2. BTansen composed Dhrupada on Hindu gods and goddesses.
3. CTansen composed songs on his patrons.
4. DTansen invented many Ragas.
Show answer
Answer: (A) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
The correct answer is (A) — this is the INCORRECT statement.

The title 'Tansen' was given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior, NOT by Emperor Akbar.

Akbar gave him the title 'Mian'.

All other statements are correct:

Tansen did compose Dhrupad songs on Hindu gods (B)

he composed songs praising his patrons (C)

and he is credited with inventing several ragas (D).

Tip:

Tansen = title from Gwalior's king.

Mian = title from Akbar.

Don't mix up who gave which title!
Key learnings →The Mughal Empire
8.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders or land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights or Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (D) — Neither 1 nor 2.

Statement 1 is wrong because Jagirdars were NOT in charge of judicial and police duties — they were mansabdars (military officers) who received land (jagirs) instead of cash salary for military service.

It was actually the Zamindars who performed local judicial and police functions.

Statement 2 is also wrong because Jagirs were NOT hereditary — they were transferable and could be taken away.

Zamindars, on the other hand, were hereditary.

Tip:

Jagirdars = military officers with transferable land.

Zamindars = hereditary local chiefs with police/judicial roles.
Key learnings →The Mughal Empire
9.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Consider the following statements:
1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (D) — Neither 1 nor 2.

Statement 1 is wrong because Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Ramanuja (11th century), which is about 400-500 years BEFORE Akbar (16th century).

Statement 2 is wrong because Kabir (15th century) lived BEFORE Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi (late 16th-17th century).

Kabir could not have been influenced by someone born after him.

Tip: Check the timelines!

Nimbarka = 11th century (not Akbar's time).

Kabir = 15th century,

Sirhindi = 17th century — Kabir came first.
Key learnings →The Mughal Empire
10.
Modern Indian History
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
1. ATobacco, cocoa and rubber
2. BTobacco, cotton and rubber
3. CCotton, coffee and sugarcane
4. DRubber, coffee and wheat
Show answer
Answer: (A) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
The correct answer is (A) — Tobacco, cocoa and rubber.

These three crops were originally grown in the Americas (the 'New World') and were brought to Europe, Asia, and Africa (the 'Old World') after Columbus's voyages in 1492.

Cotton (option B, C) was known in both the Old and New Worlds.

Coffee (option C, D) originated in Ethiopia (Old World).

Wheat (option D) is also an Old World crop.

Tip:

Tobacco, cocoa, rubber, maize, potatoes, tomatoes = New World crops.

Wheat, rice, coffee = Old World crops.
Key learnings →Advent of Europeans in India (1498-1763)
11.
Modern Indian History
Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is correct — the Charter Act of 1813 ended the East India Company's trade monopoly in India,

EXCEPT for trade in tea and trade with China, which the Company retained.

Statement 2 is correct — the Act asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over Indian territories held by the Company.

Statement 3 is wrong — India's revenues were NOT controlled by the British Parliament at this stage.

The Company continued to manage Indian revenues.

Parliamentary control over Indian revenues came later (1853).

Tip: 1813 = trade monopoly ended (except tea/China) + Crown sovereignty asserted.
Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
12.
Modern Indian History
With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s War Conference, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B1 and 3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
The correct answer is (B) — 1 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is correct — Gandhi played a key role in ending the indentured labour system, particularly during his time in South Africa.

Statement 2 is wrong — Gandhi actually SUPPORTED the resolution to recruit Indians for World War I at Lord Chelmsford's War Conference (1918), believing cooperation would help India's cause for self-rule.

Statement 3 is correct — after Indians broke the Salt Law during the Civil Disobedience Movement, the British declared the Indian National Congress illegal.

Tip: Gandhi supported WW1 recruitment (hoping for self-rule). He opposed indentured labour in South Africa.
Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)

13.

Modern Indian History

With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

	Person	Position held
1.	Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru	President, All India Liberal Federation
2.	K. C. Neogy	Member, The Constituent Assembly
3.	P. C. Joshi	General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A1 only
B1 and 2 only
C3 only
D1, 2 and 3

Show answer

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

The correct answer is (D) — All three pairs are correctly matched.

Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was a prominent leader of the Indian National Liberal Federation (formed by moderates who split from Congress in 1919).

K.C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly and also served in India's first Cabinet and as chairman of the first Finance Commission.

P.C. Joshi was the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India (1935-1947).

Tip:

Sapru = Liberal Federation
Neogy = Constituent Assembly
P.C. Joshi = CPI General Secretary.

Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)

14.
Modern Indian History
With reference to Swadeshi Movement consider the following statements:
1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
The correct answer is (C) — Both 1 and 2.

The Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908) had wide-ranging effects.

Statement 1 is correct — it revived indigenous crafts and industries by encouraging Indians to boycott foreign goods and use Indian-made products.

Statement 2 is correct — the National Council of Education was established in August 1906 as part of the movement's push for national education free from British control.

Tip:

Swadeshi Movement =

boycott foreign goods

promote Indian industry

national education.
Key learnings →Militant Nationalism (1905-1918)
15.
Modern Indian History
Consider the following pairs:

Movement/Organization Leader

1. All India Anti-Untouchability League Mahatma Gandhi

2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

3. Self-Respect Movement E.

V. Ramaswami Naicker |

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The correct answer is (D) — All three pairs are correctly matched.

Mahatma Gandhi founded the All India Anti-Untouchability League in 1932 (later renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh) to fight untouchability.

Swami Sahajanand Saraswati founded the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936 in Lucknow to champion farmers' rights.

E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) started the Self-Respect Movement to fight caste discrimination and Brahminical dominance.

Tip:

Gandhi = anti-untouchability

Sahajanand = peasant movement

Periyar = Self-Respect Movement.
Key learnings →Socio-Religious Reform Movements
16.
Art and Culture
Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
1. AChalukya
2. BChandela
3. CRashtrakuta
4. DVijayanagara
Show answer
Answer: (D) Vijayanagara
The correct answer is (D) — Vijayanagara.

Kalyana Mandapas (marriage halls within temple complexes) were a distinctive feature of Vijayanagara temple architecture.

These grand, pillared halls were used for celebrating the symbolic divine marriage of the temple deity.

Tip:

Kalyana Mandapa = divine marriage hall = Vijayanagara Empire specialty.
Key learnings →Indian Architecture
17.
Geography
Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
1. AClouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
2. BClouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
3. CThe Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
4. DClouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Show answer
Answer: (B) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
The correct answer is (B) — Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.

Dew forms when the ground cools down enough at night for water vapour to condense on surfaces.

On a clear night, the Earth's heat radiates freely into space, cooling the ground quickly.

But on a cloudy night, clouds act like a blanket — they reflect the Earth's heat radiation back to the surface, keeping the ground warmer.

Since the ground doesn't cool enough, dew doesn't form.

Tip:

Clouds = blanket at night.

They trap heat → ground stays warm → no dew.
Key learnings →Climatology
18.
Geography
With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Government have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Sand is classified as a 'minor mineral' under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.

State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals, while the Central Government deals with major minerals.
Key learnings →Economic Geography
19.
Geography
Consider the following pairs:

Famous Place River

1. Pandharpur Chandrabhaga

2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery

3. Hampi Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 and 2 only.

Pandharpur, a famous pilgrimage town in Maharashtra, is on the Chandrabhaga River (pair 1 is correct).

Tiruchirappalli (Trichy) in Tamil Nadu is on the Cauvery River (pair 2 is correct).

However, Hampi (the Vijayanagara capital in Karnataka) is on the Tungabhadra River, NOT the Malaprabha (pair 3 is wrong).

Tip:

Pandharpur = Chandrabhaga

Trichy = Cauvery

Hampi = Tungabhadra.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
20.
Geography
Consider the following pairs:

Glacier River

1. Bandarpunch Yamuna

2. Bara Shigri Chenab

3. Milam Mandakini

4. Siachen Nubra

5. Zemu Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. A1, 2 and 4
2. B1, 3 and 4
3. C2 and 5
4. D3 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4
The correct answer is (A) — 1, 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

Bandarpunch glacier feeds the Yamuna River (pair 1 — correct).

Bara Shigri glacier (the second longest glacier in the Himalayas) feeds the Chenab River (pair 2 — correct).

Milam glacier is in Uttarakhand's Pithoragarh district, but the Mandakini River originates from the Chorabari glacier near Kedarnath, not Milam (pair 3 — wrong).

Siachen glacier feeds the Nubra River in Ladakh (pair 4 — correct).

Zemu glacier (in Sikkim, near Kangchenjunga) is NOT connected to the Manas River, which flows through Bhutan (pair 5 — wrong).

Tip:

Milam ≠ Mandakini

Zemu ≠ Manas.

These are the wrong pairs to watch out for.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
21.
Geography
With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in which in the last five years consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2, 3 and 4 only
3. C2 and 4 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 and 3 only.

Among kharif crops, rice has the highest area under cultivation, so statement 1 is correct.

Cotton covers more area than sugarcane, so statement 3 is also correct.

Statement 2 is wrong because oilseeds have more area than jowar.

Statement 4 is wrong because sugarcane area has not shown a steady decline.

Tip:

Rice is king of kharif by area.

Cotton beats sugarcane in area coverage.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
22.
Geography
What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
1. ARecently discovered uranium deposits
2. BTropical rain forests
3. CUnderground cave systems
4. DWater reservoirs
Show answer
Answer: (D) Water reservoirs
The correct answer is (D) — Water reservoirs.

All three are dam/reservoir sites.

Aliyar Reservoir is in Coimbatore district, Tamil Nadu.

Isapur Dam is on the Penganga River in Maharashtra.

Kangsabati Reservoir is in West Bengal, built on the Kangsabati River.

Tip: Aliyar, Isapur, Kangsabati = all water reservoirs/dams in different states.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
23.
Geography
On 21st June, the Sun
1. Adoes not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
2. Bdoes not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
3. Cshines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
4. Dshines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Show answer
Answer: (A) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
The correct answer is (A) — the Sun does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle.

June 21st is the Summer Solstice — the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere.

On this day, the Sun is directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (not the Equator or Capricorn).

The North Pole is tilted maximally toward the Sun, so places at or above the Arctic Circle experience 24 hours of daylight (midnight sun).

Meanwhile, the Antarctic Circle has 24 hours of darkness.

Tip:

June 21 = Summer Solstice

Sun overhead at Tropic of Cancer

Arctic = 24-hour daylight

Antarctic = 24-hour darkness
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
24.
Geography
Consider the following pairs:

Sea Bordering country

1. Adriatic Sea Albania

2. Black Sea Croatia

3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan

4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco

5. Red Sea Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. A1, 2 and 4 only
2. B1, 3 and 4 only
3. C2 and 5 only
4. D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
The correct answer is (B) — 1, 3 and 4 only.

Pair 1 is correct — Albania borders the Adriatic Sea.

Pair 2 is wrong — Croatia borders the Adriatic Sea, NOT the Black Sea. The Black Sea is bordered by Turkey, Russia, Ukraine, Georgia, Romania, and Bulgaria.

Pair 3 is correct — Kazakhstan borders the Caspian Sea.

Pair 4 is correct — Morocco borders the Mediterranean Sea.

Pair 5 is wrong — Syria borders the Mediterranean Sea, NOT the Red Sea. The Red Sea is bordered by Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti.

Tip:

Croatia = Adriatic (not Black Sea).

Syria = Mediterranean (not Red Sea).

These are the two tricky ones.
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
25.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B2, 3 and 4
3. C1, 2 and 4
4. D1, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4
The correct answer is (C) — 1, 2 and 4.

PVTGs are the most vulnerable among tribal groups.

Statement 1 is correct — they live across 18 States and one Union Territory.

Statement 2 is correct — a declining or stagnant population is one key criterion for PVTG classification, along with pre-agricultural technology and low literacy.

Statement 4 is correct — Irular (Tamil Nadu) and Konda Reddi (Andhra Pradesh) are both PVTGs.

Statement 3 is wrong because there are 75 PVTGs in India, not 95.

Tip: Remember 75 PVTGs across 18 States + 1 UT.
Key learnings →Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
26.
Indian Polity
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
1. AJawaharlal Nehru
2. BLal Bahadur Shastri
3. CIndira Gandhi
4. DMorarji Desai
Show answer
Answer: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
The correct answer is (A) — Jawaharlal Nehru.

The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution through the First Amendment Act, 1951, during Nehru's tenure as PM.

It was created to protect land reform laws from being challenged in courts on the ground that they violated fundamental rights.

Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule were shielded from judicial review (though the Supreme Court later limited this protection in the Coelho case, 2007).

Tip:

9th Schedule = 1st Amendment (1951)

Nehru = protect land reform laws from court challenges.
Key learnings →Constitutional Amendments
27.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The correct answer is (B) — 2 only.

Statement 1 is wrong — it was the 39th Amendment (not 44th) that placed the election of the PM beyond judicial review.

The 44th Amendment actually restored many democratic provisions.

Statement 2 is correct — the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment (which created the National Judicial Appointments Commission or NJAC) because it allowed too much executive interference in appointing judges, violating the independence of the judiciary.

Tip:

39th Amendment = shielded PM's election from courts (during Emergency).

99th Amendment (NJAC) = struck down to protect judicial independence.
Key learnings →Constitutional Amendments
28.
Indian Polity
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (D) — Neither 1 nor 2.

Statement 1 is wrong because the 42nd Amendment (1976) did try to bar High Courts from reviewing central laws, but the 43rd Amendment (1977) reversed this.

So High Courts CAN declare central laws unconstitutional today.

Statement 2 is wrong because the Supreme Court, in the famous Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), held that it CAN review constitutional amendments to check if they violate the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.

Tip:

High Courts can review laws,

and the Supreme Court can review even amendments — thanks to the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Key learnings →Constitutional Amendments
29.
Indian Polity
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an imminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
1. AFirst Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
2. BRajamannar Committee (1969)
3. CSarkaria Commission (1983)
4. DNational Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Show answer
Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
The correct answer is (C) — Sarkaria Commission (1983).

The Sarkaria Commission, which submitted its report in 1988, recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state, should be a detached figure without strong political links, and should not have taken part in politics in the recent past.

It also suggested that the state Chief Minister should have a say in the appointment.

Tip: Sarkaria Commission = Centre-State relations, including Governor's appointment guidelines.
Key learnings →Executive
30.
Indian Polity
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
1. AThird Schedule
2. BFifth Schedule
3. CNinth Schedule
4. DTwelfth Schedule
Show answer
Answer: (B) Fifth Schedule
The correct answer is (B) — Fifth Schedule.

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.

In the landmark Samatha vs State of AP case (1997), the Supreme Court declared that transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule.

This protects tribal land from being taken over by private companies.

Tip:

Fifth Schedule = protection of tribal areas.

Samatha Judgment = tribal land can't be given to private miners.
Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
31.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of Indian cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2
2. B3 only
3. C3 and 4 only
4. D1, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only
The correct answer is (C) — 3 and 4 only.

Statement 1 is wrong — the Speaker CAN reject an impeachment motion.

Statement 2 is wrong — the Constitution does not define what exactly constitutes 'incapacity' or 'proved misbehaviour.'

Statement 3 is correct — the detailed impeachment process is laid out in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, including the formation of a three-member investigation committee.

Statement 4 is correct — the removal motion must be passed by a special majority in EACH House (majority of total membership AND two-thirds of members present and voting).

Tip: Judge impeachment needs a special majority in BOTH Houses. The Speaker can reject the motion at the initial stage.
Key learnings →Judiciary
32.
Indian Polity
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibition or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142.

It could mean which one of the following?
1. AThe decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
2. BThe Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
3. CIn the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
4. DState Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
Show answer
Answer: (B) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
The correct answer is (B).

Article 142 gives the Supreme Court the power to pass any order necessary to do 'complete justice' in a case.

The key idea is that ordinary laws made by Parliament cannot limit this constitutional power.

This was famously stated in the Bhopal Gas Tragedy case (Union Carbide case), where the Supreme Court said it could go beyond regular laws to ensure justice.

In simple terms, Article 142 places the Supreme Court's power to deliver justice above ordinary legislation.

Tip: Article 142 = Supreme Court's 'complete justice' power that even Parliament's laws cannot restrict.
Key learnings →Judiciary
33.
Indian Polity
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament.
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 and 2
2. B1, 3 and 4
3. C3, 4 and 5
4. D2 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2
The correct answer is (A) — 1 and 2.

Parliament reviews independent regulators through two mechanisms:

Department-Related Standing Committees (permanent committees covering specific ministries)

Ad Hoc Committees (temporary committees set up for specific tasks, like the JPC on 2G spectrum or the JPC on stock market scam).

The Finance Commission, FSLRC, and NITI Aayog do NOT have the role of reviewing independent regulators.

Tip: Parliamentary oversight of regulators happens through Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees — not through advisory bodies.
Key learnings →Legislature
34.
Indian Polity
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 only.

Statement 1 is correct — under Article 176, the Governor addresses both Houses of the State Legislature at the start of the first session each year, similar to how the President addresses Parliament.

Statement 2 is wrong — Article 208 says that if a State Legislature has no rules on a particular matter, it follows its OWN previous rules (from before the Constitution), not the Lok Sabha's rules. There is no provision that says state assemblies must follow Lok Sabha rules.

Tip:

Governor's annual address = yes.

State Assembly copying Lok Sabha rules = no such provision.
Key learnings →Legislature
35.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is correct — the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 lists several posts that are exempted from 'Office of Profit' disqualification, so MLAs/MPs holding those posts won't lose their seats.

Statement 2 is correct — this Act has been amended five times to expand the exempted list.

Statement 3 is wrong — the term 'Office of Profit' is NOT defined anywhere in the Constitution. Courts have interpreted it on a case-by-case basis.

Tip: 'Office of Profit' is mentioned in the Constitution but never defined — its meaning has been developed through court judgments.
Key learnings →Legislature
36.
Indian Polity
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 3 only
The correct answer is (C) — 3 only.

Statement 1 is wrong because the Act provides 26 weeks of paid maternity leave (not 3+3 = 6 months). The leave is mostly taken after delivery.

Statement 2 is wrong because employers must allow 4 creche visits a day (not 6).

Statement 3 is correct — women who already have 2 children get only 12 weeks of paid maternity leave instead of 26 weeks.

Tip: Remember 26 weeks for first two children, 12 weeks from the third child onwards.
Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
37.
Indian Polity
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
1. AThe proportion of literates in the population
2. BThe stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
3. CThe size of population in the working are group
4. DThe level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Show answer
Answer: (D) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
The correct answer is (D) — The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society.

Social capital refers to the networks, trust, and cooperation that exist among people in a society.

It is about relationships, not physical things.

Options A (literacy), B (buildings/machines), and C (working-age population) refer to human capital or physical capital.

Social capital is the invisible glue — trust, cooperation, and shared norms — that holds a society together.

Tip: Social capital = trust and relationships, not money or buildings.
Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
38.
Indian Polity
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
1. AArticle 19
2. BArticle 21
3. CArticle 25
4. DArticle 29
Show answer
Answer: (B) Article 21
The correct answer is (B) — Article 21.

The Supreme Court ruled that the right to marry a person of one's choice is part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.

This was notably affirmed in the Hadiya case (2018), where the Kerala High Court had annulled a marriage, but the Supreme Court overturned that decision, upholding the individual's freedom to choose their life partner.

Tip: Article 21 (Right to Life) is the most expansive fundamental right — it covers privacy, dignity, and the right to marry by choice.
Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
39.
Indian Polity
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
1. AProtection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. BAbsence of restraint
3. COpportunity to do whatever one likes
4. DOpportunity to develop oneself fully
Show answer
Answer: (D) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
The correct answer is (D) — Opportunity to develop oneself fully.

Liberty does not simply mean 'no rules' or 'do whatever you want.'

In political science, the most appropriate definition is that liberty means providing people the opportunity to develop themselves fully — this includes freedom with reasonable limits.

The Indian Constitution's Preamble also reflects this idea: liberty of thought, expression, belief, and worship.

Tip: Liberty = freedom to grow, not freedom to do anything without limits.
Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
40.
Indian Economy
With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. AThe ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
2. BThe major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
3. CIt resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
4. DLand reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.
Show answer
Answer: (B) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
The correct answer is (B) — The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

After Independence, land reforms aimed to redistribute land from large landholders to landless farmers for more equitable ownership.

Option A is wrong because initially the ceiling was individual-based in many states, and it was changed to family-based only after 1971.

Option C is wrong because the reforms actually promoted food crops (not cash crops), leading to the Green Revolution.

Option D is wrong because many exemptions to ceiling limits existed.

Tip: Land reforms = redistribution of land to the landless. The 1971 revisions lowered ceilings and moved to family-based limits.
Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors
41.
Indian Economy
The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is

Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
1. Atransportation cost only
2. Binterest cost only
3. Cprocurement incidentals and distribution cost
4. Dprocurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Show answer
Answer: (C) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
The correct answer is (C) — procurement incidentals and distribution cost.

The economic cost of food grains for FCI =

MSP (Minimum Support Price) +

bonus (if any) +

procurement incidentals (like labour charges, mandi fees, taxes) +

distribution cost (like transportation, storage, and administration).

It is NOT just transport or interest alone.

Tip: Think of it as buying price + handling charges + delivery charges.
Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors
42.
Indian Economy
Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
1. ASpices
2. BFresh fruits
3. CPulses
4. DVegetable oils
Show answer
Answer: (D) Vegetable oils
The correct answer is (D) — Vegetable oils.

India is one of the largest importers of vegetable oils (like palm oil, soybean oil, and sunflower oil) in the world.

Among all agricultural imports, vegetable oils consistently account for the highest value.

Pulses are also imported significantly, but their value is lower than vegetable oils.

Tip: India imports huge quantities of palm oil — vegetable oils top our agricultural import bill.
Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors
43.
Indian Economy
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
1. AAdvances
2. BDeposits
3. CInvestments
4. DMoney at call and short notice
Show answer
Answer: (B) Deposits
The correct answer is (B) — Deposits.

This is a classic banking concept.

Deposits are money that customers put INTO the bank — so they are the bank's LIABILITIES (the bank owes this money back to customers).

Assets are what the bank OWNS or is owed, like:

loans given out (advances)

investments

money at call

cash reserves

Tip: Remember — deposits = liability (bank owes depositors), loans/advances = asset (borrowers owe the bank).
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
44.
Indian Economy
What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
1. ATo lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit.
2. BTo support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
3. CTo act as independent regulator in case of application for loans of Rs. 50 core or more
4. DTo aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
Show answer
Answer: (D) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending
The correct answer is (D).

The Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) was part of 'Project Sashakt', a plan to resolve bad loans (loans that borrowers fail to repay).

Here's how it works:

For bad loans above Rs. 50 crore that involve multiple banks (called consortium lending), the banks sign an ICA allowing the lead bank to prepare a resolution plan within 180 days.

If that fails, the case goes to NCLT (a legal tribunal for company disputes).

Think of it as banks agreeing on a 'team captain' to fix the problem faster instead of each bank acting separately.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
45.
Indian Economy
The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
1. AIntegrated Rural Development Programme
2. BLead Bank Scheme
3. CMahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
4. DNational Skill Development Mission
Show answer
Answer: (B) Lead Bank Scheme
The correct answer is (B) — Lead Bank Scheme.

The Service Area Approach (SAA) was introduced in 1989 as an improvement over the Lead Bank Scheme.

Under SAA, each bank branch in rural/semi-urban areas was assigned a service area of 15–25 villages and was responsible for providing bank credit to that area.

The goal was to ensure planned and orderly banking development in rural India.

Tip: SAA is a refined version of the Lead Bank Scheme — both deal with rural banking coverage.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
46.
Indian Economy
Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
1. ACertificate of Deposits
2. BCommercial Paper
3. CPromissory Note
4. DParticipatory Note
Show answer
Answer: (D) Participatory Note
The correct answer is (D) — Participatory Note.

Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are instruments issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to overseas investors who want to invest in Indian stock markets without directly registering with SEBI.

It is like a shortcut — the FPI buys Indian shares and then issues a P-Note to the foreign investor based on those shares.

The other options — Certificate of Deposit, Commercial Paper, and Promissory Note — are all money market instruments used for short-term borrowing, not stock market access.

Tip: P-Notes = backdoor entry to Indian stock markets for foreign investors.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
47.
Indian Economy
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?
1. AMaintenance of law and order
2. BPaying taxes
3. CRegistering property
4. DDealing with construction permits
Show answer
Answer: (A) Maintenance of law and order
The correct answer is (A) — Maintenance of law and order.

The World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Index covers 10 areas like:

starting a business

dealing with construction permits

getting electricity

registering property

getting credit

protecting minority investors

paying taxes

trading across borders

enforcing contracts

resolving insolvency.

'Maintenance of law and order' is NOT one of these sub-indices.

Tip: The index focuses on business regulations, not general governance or policing.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
48.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (D) — Neither 1 nor 2.

Statement 1 is wrong because most of India's external debt is owed by private entities, not the government.

Commercial borrowings (37.1%)

NRI deposits (23.9%)

form the largest chunks.

Statement 2 is wrong because India's external debt is in multiple currencies — while the US dollar has the biggest share (about 46%), a significant portion is in Indian rupees (25%), SDR, yen, and euro.

Tip: India's external debt is mainly private-sector borrowing, not government borrowing, and it is in multiple currencies.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
49.
Indian Economy
In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/ contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 3 only
3. C2 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
The correct answer is (B) — 1 and 3 only.

A currency crisis happens when a country's currency loses value sharply, often due to low foreign exchange reserves.

IT sector earnings (statement 1) bring in foreign currency, and remittances from Indians abroad (statement 3) also bring in foreign currency — both boost forex reserves and reduce the risk of a currency crisis.

However, increasing government expenditure (statement 2) does not directly increase foreign exchange reserves. It may even worsen things by increasing the fiscal deficit.

Tip: More foreign currency coming in = safer currency. IT exports and NRI remittances bring dollars in.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
50.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 only.

Statement 1 is correct — PPP exchange rates are calculated by comparing what the same basket of goods and services costs in different countries.

For example, if a meal costs Rs. 500 in India and $10 in the US, the PPP rate is Rs. 50 per dollar.

Statement 2 is wrong — India is the THIRD largest economy in PPP terms (after China and the USA), not the sixth.

Tip: PPP = 'same goods, different prices' comparison. India is 3rd by PPP, not 6th.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
51.
Indian Economy
Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/ RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
1. ACurbing imports of non-essential goods-and promoting exports
2. BEncouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
3. CEasing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
4. DFollowing an expansionary monetary policy
Show answer
Answer: (D) Following an expansionary monetary policy
The correct answer is (D) — Following an expansionary monetary policy.

To stop the rupee from falling, the government/RBI would typically:

curb unnecessary imports (A)

encourage rupee-denominated bonds like Masala Bonds to reduce dollar demand (B)

ease external commercial borrowing to bring in more foreign currency (C)

However, an expansionary monetary policy (increasing money supply, lowering interest rates) would WEAKEN the rupee further because lower interest rates make India less attractive for foreign investors, leading to capital outflow.

Tip:

Expansionary policy = more money supply = weaker currency.

This is the opposite of what you'd do to save the rupee.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
52.
Indian Economy
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
1. AInternational Monetary Fund
2. BUnited Nations Conference on Trade and Development
3. CWorld Economic Forum
4. DWorld Bank
Show answer
Answer: (C) World Economic Forum
The correct answer is (C) — World Economic Forum (WEF).

The Global Competitiveness Report is published annually by the WEF, which also hosts the famous Davos summit.

It ranks countries based on how competitive their economies are.

Tip:

WEF = Global Competitiveness Report.

World Bank = Ease of Doing Business.

IMF = World Economic Outlook.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
53.
Indian Economy
Among the following which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
1. AChina
2. BIndia
3. CMyanmar
4. DVietnam
Show answer
Answer: (B) India
The correct answer is (B) — India.

India has been the world's largest rice exporter since around 2011-12, consistently holding a 25-26% share of global rice exports.

Thailand is the second largest (22-25% share), followed by Vietnam (13-16%).

China, despite being the world's largest rice producer, exports very little because its huge population consumes most of its production.

Tip:

India = #1 rice exporter.

China = #1 rice producer but not a major exporter.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
54.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal product.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 only.

Statement 1 is correct — coal mines were nationalized in two phases:

coking coal mines in 1971-72

non-coking coal mines in 1973, both under PM Indira Gandhi.

Statement 2 is wrong — after the Supreme Court cancelled coal block allocations in 2014, new blocks were allocated through auctions (not lottery).

Statement 3 is wrong — India still imports a large amount of coal (about 200 million tonnes annually) and is NOT self-sufficient.

Tip:

Coal nationalized under Indira Gandhi.

New allocation = auction (not lottery).

India still imports ~25% of its coal needs.
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
55.
Indian Economy
In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
1. Apoverty rates vary from State to State
2. Bprice levels vary from State to State
3. CGross State Product varies from State to State
4. Dquality of public distribution varies from State to State
Show answer
Answer: (B) price levels vary from State to State
The correct answer is (B) — Price levels vary from State to State.

The official poverty line represents the minimum income needed to meet basic needs.

Since the cost of living (prices of food, essentials) differs from state to state, the poverty line is set higher in expensive states and lower in cheaper ones.

It is not about how many poor people there are (A), or the state's total economic output (C), or PDS quality (D).

Tip:

Poverty line = income needed for basics.

Higher prices in a state = higher poverty line for that state.
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
56.
Indian Economy
With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is correct — the Second Five-Year Plan (based on the Mahalanobis Model) focused on import substitution by developing heavy and capital goods industries within India.

Statement 2 is correct — the Fourth Plan aimed to correct the growing inequality and concentration of wealth by spreading the benefits of growth to weaker sections.

Statement 3 is wrong — the financial sector was included as part of the plan in the 9th Five-Year Plan, not the 5th.

Tip:

2nd Plan = heavy industries (Mahalanobis)

4th Plan = reducing inequality

9th Plan = financial sector integration.
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
57.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements: As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
1. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
The correct answer is (C) — Both 1 and 2.

Statement 1 is correct — fixed-term employment rules make it easier for companies to hire workers for a fixed duration and let them go when the term ends, reducing the complexity of firing.

Statement 2 is correct — under the standing orders, temporary workers (whether paid monthly, weekly, or per piece) do not need to be given a termination notice.

Tip:

Fixed-term employment = easier hire-and-fire.

Temporary workers = no termination notice needed.
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
58.
Indian Economy
With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Government have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is correct — sand is classified as a 'minor mineral' under the MMDR Act, 1957.

Statement 2 is wrong — it is the State Governments (not the Central Government) that have the power to both grant mining leases for minor minerals AND frame rules related to them.

Statement 3 is correct — Section 23C of the MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules to prevent illegal mining, transport, and storage of minerals.

Tip: For minor minerals, State Governments handle everything — leases, rules, and anti-illegal mining measures.
Withdrawn from the question bankGovernment Schemes and Economic Institutions
59.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The correct answer is (B) — 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is wrong because PNGRB is NOT the first regulatory body in India — bodies like SEBI and TRAI were set up earlier. PNGRB was created in 2006.

Statement 2 is correct — PNGRB's job is to protect consumers and promote competitive markets in the petroleum and natural gas sector.

Statement 3 is correct — appeals against PNGRB decisions go to the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL), which also handles petroleum-related appeals.

Tip: PNGRB shares its appellate body with the electricity sector.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
60.
Indian Economy
The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the
1. ABanks Board Bureau
2. BReserve Bank of India
3. CUnion Ministry of Finance
4. DManagement of concerned bank
Show answer
Answer: (A) Banks Board Bureau
The correct answer is (A) — Banks Board Bureau (BBB).

The BBB was set up in 2016 to recommend candidates for the posts of chairpersons and managing directors of public sector banks.

It also helps banks with strategy and raising capital.

Think of BBB as the 'selection committee' for top bank leadership.

The RBI regulates banks but does not select their heads, and neither does the Finance Ministry directly.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
61.
Indian Economy
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
1. ADepartment of Science and Technology
2. BMinistry of Labour and Employment
3. CNITI Aayog
4. DMinistry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Show answer
Answer: (C) NITI Aayog
The correct answer is (C) — NITI Aayog.

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up under NITI Aayog to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across India.

It runs programmes like:

Atal Tinkering Labs (in schools)

Atal Incubation Centres (for startups).

Tip: AIM = under NITI Aayog. It promotes innovation from school level (Tinkering Labs) to startup level (Incubation Centres).
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
62.
Indian Economy
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
1. AIncrease in the cash reserve ratio
2. BIncrease in the banking habit of the population
3. CIncrease in the statutory liquidity ratio
4. DIncrease in the population of the country
Show answer
Answer: (B) Increase in the banking habit of the population
The correct answer is (B) — Increase in the banking habit of the population.

The money multiplier shows how much the total money supply increases for every rupee of base money.

When more people use banks (higher banking habit), more money gets deposited, banks can lend more, and those loans become new deposits elsewhere — creating a multiplier effect.

Increasing CRR (A) or SLR (C) would REDUCE the multiplier because banks must keep more money in reserve.

Population increase alone (D) doesn't change the multiplier.

Tip: More people banking = more deposits = more lending = higher money multiplier.
Key learnings →Money, Inflation, and Monetary Policy
63.
Environment
Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife Naturally found in

1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River

2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River

3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
The correct answer is (C) — 1 and 3 only.

Blue-finned Mahseer is indeed found in the Cauvery River (pair 1 is correct).

The Rusty-spotted Cat, one of the world's smallest wild cats, is found in the Eastern Ghats (pair 3 is correct).

Pair 2 is wrong because the Irrawaddy Dolphin is found in Chilika Lake (Odisha) and parts of Southeast Asia, NOT in the Chambal River.

The Chambal River is home to the Gangetic dolphin.

Tip:

Irrawaddy Dolphin = Chilika Lake.

Gangetic Dolphin = Chambal/Ganga.

Don't mix them up!
Withdrawn from the question bankBiodiversity and Conservation
64.
Environment
Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?
1. AIts extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides
2. BIts extract is used in the preparation of medicines
3. CIt is a leguminous plant used as a biofertilizer
4. DIt is an invasive species disrupting local ecosystems
Show answer
Answer: (D) It is an invasive species disrupting local ecosystems
Option (d) is correct:

Prosopis juliflora (vilayati kikar or vilayati babul), an exotic tree, is one of the top invaders in India.

It was introduced into India from South America and has become naturalised all-over north India.

This tree is also affecting the nesting success of birds.

It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

Invasive plants are those plants which spread to regions other than their native and thrive to the extent of becoming a threat to local species.

Alien Invasive species occur in all groups of plants and animals.

They include:

competitors

predators

pathogens

parasites

They have invaded almost every type of native ecosystem and have caused hundreds of extinctions.
Withdrawn from the question bankBiodiversity and Conservation
65.
Environment
Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
1. ANeyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
2. BMudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanand Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
3. CKaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
4. DKawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Show answer
Answer: (A) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
The correct answer is (A) — Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.

The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is located at the southern tip of the Western Ghats, spanning parts of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

It includes three wildlife sanctuaries:

Neyyar

Peppara

Shendurney

and the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.

It is a UNESCO-recognized biosphere reserve rich in biodiversity and medicinal plants.

Tip: Agasthyamala = southernmost biosphere reserve in Western Ghats. Think 'southern tip' = Kerala/Tamil Nadu border.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
66.
Environment
Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forests Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The correct answer is (B) — 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is wrong — the 2017 amendment to the Indian Forest Act exempted bamboo grown in NON-FOREST areas from needing a felling permit.

Bamboo on forest land still cannot be freely felled.

Statement 2 is correct — the Forest Rights Act, 2006 classifies bamboo as a Minor Forest Produce (MFP).

Statement 3 is correct — the same Act gives forest dwellers ownership rights over MFPs, including the right to collect, use, and sell them.

Tip: Bamboo is MFP, and forest dwellers own MFP.

But free felling of bamboo applies only outside forests.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
67.
Environment
Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
The correct answer is (C) — Both 1 and 2.

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 is a broad umbrella law.

Statement 1 is correct — the Act allows the government to lay down procedures for public participation in environmental protection, which it does through the EIA (Environmental Impact Assessment) notification that requires public hearings.

Statement 2 is correct — Section 3 of the Act empowers the government to set standards for emission and discharge of pollutants from various sources.

Tip: The EPA, 1986 is the 'umbrella act' — it covers both public participation (via EIA) and pollution standards.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
68.
Environment
Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 only.

The Asiatic lion is found ONLY in India, specifically in the Gir National Park in Gujarat.

Statement 2 is wrong because the double-humped (Bactrian) camel is native to Central Asia (Mongolia, China). In India, it is found only in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh, but it is not exclusive to India.

Statement 3 is wrong because the one-horned rhinoceros is found in both India (Kaziranga) and Nepal (Chitwan National Park).

Tip:

Asiatic lion = India only (Gir).

Bactrian camel = Central Asia.

One-horned rhino = India + Nepal.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
69.
Environment
Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2, 3 and 4 only
3. C2 and 4 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The correct answer is (D) — All four statements are correct.

Some turtles are herbivores — the green sea turtle eats mainly seagrass and algae (statement 1).

Some fish are herbivores — parrotfish and rabbitfish eat algae (statement 2).

Some marine mammals are herbivores — manatees and dugongs eat seagrass and aquatic plants (statement 3).

Some snakes are viviparous, meaning they give birth to live young (no eggs) — like boa constrictors and green anacondas (statement 4).

Tip: Nature is full of surprises — vegetarian turtles, vegetarian fish, vegetarian sea mammals, and snakes that give live birth!
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
70.
Environment
Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendation of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The correct answer is (B) — 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is wrong — the Ramsar Convention encourages countries to conserve wetlands, but it does NOT make it mandatory to protect ALL wetlands. Countries choose which wetlands to designate as Ramsar sites.

Statement 2 is correct — India's Wetlands Rules, 2010 were framed based on the Ramsar Convention's recommendations for wetland conservation.

Statement 3 is correct — the Rules cover not just the wetlands themselves but also their drainage areas and catchment regions as identified by the relevant authority.

Tip:

Ramsar = encourages conservation (not mandatory for all wetlands).

India's Wetland Rules extend to catchment areas too.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
71.
Environment
Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The correct answer is (D) — All three statements are correct.

Statement 1: Global warming can melt permafrost and warm ocean floors, which could release the methane trapped in hydrate deposits — a dangerous feedback loop.

Statement 2: Methane hydrate deposits are found in two main locations — under Arctic permafrost and beneath the ocean floor along continental margins.

Statement 3: Methane in the atmosphere gets converted (oxidized) to CO2 and water within about 10-20 years by reacting with hydroxyl radicals.

Tip:

Methane hydrate = ice-like methane stored underground/underwater.

Warming releases it → more warming (vicious cycle).

But methane breaks down in ~10-20 years.
Key learnings →Climate Change
72.
Environment
Which of the following statements best describes the term 'xerophytes'?
1. APlants with very small leaves and thick waxy layers
2. BPlants growing in extremely dry conditions throughout the year
3. CPlants that grow as epiphytes
4. DPlants that are found only in tropical rainforests
Show answer
Answer: (B) Plants growing in extremely dry conditions throughout the year
Option (b) is correct:

Desert plants lose very little water through transpiration.

The leaves in desert plants are either absent, very small (tiny), or they are present in the shape of spines.

This helps in reducing the loss of water from the leaves through transpiration.

Plants growing in extremely dry conditions throughout the year adopt thorns instead of leaves to prevent loss of water.

Photosynthesis in these plants is usually carried out by the stems.

The stem is also covered with a thick waxy layer, which helps to retain water.

Hence, they have hard and waxy leaves as well.

Xerophytes are plants growing in extremely dry conditions throughout the year.

For example, plants growing in deserts (psammophytes), on rock (lithophytes), or alpine plants growing above 14000 feet altitude.

Elimination Technique: Hard and waxy leaves are a well-known feature of desert plants.

So, statement 1 must be part of the answer.

It makes answer B.
Withdrawn from the question bankEcology and Ecosystems
73.
Environment
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine
1. AManas National Park
2. BNamdahpa National Park
3. CNeora Valley National Park
4. DValley of Flowers National Park
Show answer
Answer: (D) Valley of Flowers National Park
The correct answer is (D) — Valley of Flowers National Park.

Located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand at high altitude in the Himalayas, the Valley of Flowers lies completely in the temperate alpine zone.

It is surrounded by snowy peaks of the Zanskar range.

Manas (Assam) is tropical.

Namdapha (Arunachal Pradesh) spans multiple zones.

Neora Valley (West Bengal) is subtropical to temperate but not entirely alpine.

Tip:

Valley of Flowers = high altitude Uttarakhand = fully temperate alpine.

It's a UNESCO World Heritage Site too.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
74.
Environment
Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
1. Aanti-malarial drug
2. Bbiodiesel
3. Cpulp for paper industry
4. Dtextile fibre
Show answer
Answer: (D) textile fibre
The correct answer is (D) — textile fibre.

Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) is a fibre-yielding plant that grows abundantly in the Himalayan region.

Its fibres can be used to make textiles, providing a sustainable livelihood for people in remote mountain villages.

The plant grows naturally without pesticides or much care, making it an eco-friendly source of fibre.

Tip: Himalayan nettle = natural textile fibre from the mountains.

Think of it as the Himalayan version of cotton or jute.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
75.
Environment
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the used of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
1. ACreating the artificial rains in some regions
2. BReducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
3. CReducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
4. DReducing the global warming
Show answer
Answer: (D) Reducing the global warming
The correct answer is (D) — Reducing global warming.

Cirrus cloud thinning and injecting sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere are both geoengineering techniques proposed to combat climate change.

Sulphate aerosols would reflect sunlight back into space, cooling the Earth.

Thinning cirrus clouds (which trap heat) would allow more heat to escape into space.

Both aim to reduce global warming.

Tip: These are 'solar geoengineering' ideas — cool the planet by reflecting sunlight or letting heat escape.
Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
76.
Environment
In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C4 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The correct answer is (B) — 2 and 3 only.

H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen (about 18%) with CNG.

Statement 1 is wrong — H-CNG does NOT eliminate carbon monoxide emissions completely; it only reduces them by up to 70%.

Statement 2 is correct — H-CNG reduces both CO2 and hydrocarbon emissions compared to regular CNG.

Statement 3 is correct — hydrogen can be blended up to about one-fifth (18-20%) by volume with CNG.

Statement 4 is wrong — H-CNG is slightly more expensive than CNG (roughly Rs. 43/kg vs Rs. 42/kg).

Tip: H-CNG = CNG + 18% hydrogen. It REDUCES emissions but doesn't ELIMINATE them. Slightly costlier than CNG.
Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
77.
Environment
Consider the following statements:
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 only.

Statement 1 is correct — the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) exists at both the national level and state level as per the CAMPA Act, 2016.

Statement 2 is wrong — the Act does not make people's participation mandatory in compensatory afforestation programmes.

While public involvement is encouraged in forestry, this particular law does not require it.

Tip: CAMPA = national + state level bodies, but no mandatory public participation.
Key learnings →Other Environmental Issues
78.
Environment
Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?
1. AThey are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
2. BThey are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
3. CThey are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
4. DThey are often found to be used as food adulterants.
Show answer
Answer: (A) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
The correct answer is (A) — They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

Microbeads are tiny plastic particles (less than 1 mm) found in products like face wash, toothpaste, and shampoo.

When washed down the drain, they end up in rivers and oceans.

Fish and marine creatures mistake them for food and eat them, which harms the entire marine food chain.

Many countries are now banning microbeads.

Tip:

Microbeads = tiny plastics in cosmetics

End up in oceans

Harm marine life.
Key learnings →Other Environmental Issues
79.
Environment
Consider the following states:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
1. A2-3-1-4
2. B2-3-4-1
3. C3-2-4-1
4. D3-2-1-4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 3-2-4-1
The correct answer is (C) — Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chhattisgarh (in ascending order of forest cover percentage).

Maharashtra has about 16.5% forest cover,
Madhya Pradesh about 25.1%,
Odisha about 33%,
and Chhattisgarh about 41.1%.

So from least to most forested:
Maharashtra < MP < Odisha < Chhattisgarh.

Tip: Chhattisgarh is the most forested among these four.
Maharashtra, despite being large, has the least forest cover percentage.
Key learnings →Other Environmental Issues
80.
Environment
In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
1. AThe Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
2. BThe Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
3. CThe e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
4. DThe Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Show answer
Answer: (C) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
The correct answer is (C) — The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011.

Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) means that the manufacturer of a product is responsible for managing it even after the consumer throws it away.

This concept was first introduced in India through the e-Waste Rules of 2011.

So if you buy a phone or laptop, the company that made it has to take responsibility for its safe disposal.

Tip: EPR = Producer's responsibility doesn't end at sale, it extends to disposal.
Key learnings →Pollution
81.
Environment
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. AWaste generator has to segregate waste five categories.
2. BThe Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
3. CThe Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
4. DIt is mandatory the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Show answer
Answer: (C) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
The correct answer is (C).

The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 provide detailed criteria for selecting sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

Option A is wrong because waste must be segregated into specific categories but not exactly five.

Option B is wrong because the rules apply to all urban local bodies, not just notified ones, and also cover census towns, notified areas, and more.

Option D is wrong because there is no mandatory ban on moving waste between districts.

Tip: SWM Rules 2016 = detailed site-selection criteria for landfills is a key feature.
Key learnings →Pollution
82.
Environment
In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
1. AExtraction of rare earth elements
2. BNatural gas extraction technologies
3. CHydrogen fuel-based automobiles
4. DWaste-to-energy technologies
Show answer
Answer: (D) Waste-to-energy technologies
The correct answer is (D) — Waste-to-energy technologies.

Pyrolysis means heating organic waste at high temperatures WITHOUT oxygen to break it down into useful fuels.

Plasma gasification uses extremely hot plasma (ionized gas) to convert waste into synthesis gas (syngas), which can be used to generate energy.

Both are modern methods of converting waste into energy instead of dumping it in landfills.

Tip:

Pyrolysis = heat without oxygen.

Plasma gasification = super-hot plasma.

Both = waste-to-energy.
Key learnings →Pollution
83.
Environment
Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C2 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The correct answer is (D) — All three statements are correct.

Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides (especially nitrous oxide) when nitrogen-based fertilizers break down (statement 1).

Cattle release ammonia as a by-product of digesting feed — this is a major source of air pollution from livestock (statement 2).

The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds like ammonia, nitrate, and nitrous oxide from poultry waste (statement 3).

Tip:

Agriculture

livestock

poultry

all release nitrogen-based pollutants into the environment.
Key learnings →Pollution
84.
Environment
Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2, 3 and 4 only
3. C1 and 4 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The correct answer is (D) — All four gases are released.

When crop residue or biomass is burned, it releases a wide range of pollutants:

carbon monoxide (CO)

methane (CH4)

ozone (O3)

sulphur dioxide (SO2)

along with CO2, black carbon, and other harmful substances.

This is why stubble burning in states like Punjab and Haryana causes severe air pollution in Delhi every winter.

Tip: Burning crop residue = releases almost every harmful gas imaginable. All four listed gases are emitted.
Key learnings →Pollution
85.
Environment
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
1. Apesticides in agriculture
2. Bpreservatives in processed foods
3. Cfruit-ripening agents
4. Dmoisturizing agents in cosmetics
Show answer
Answer: (A) pesticides in agriculture
The correct answer is (A) — pesticides in agriculture.

Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all chemical pesticides (specifically insecticides) used in Indian agriculture.

They are highly toxic and their overuse raises concerns about:

soil contamination

water pollution

health risks to farmers and consumers

They are NOT:

food preservatives

fruit-ripening agents

cosmetic ingredients

Tip: If you see chemical names ending in '-furan', '-thion', '-phos' in a UPSC question, think pesticides.
Key learnings →Pollution
86.
Science and Technology
What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
1. AA molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
2. BA biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
3. CA gene that makes plants pest-resistant
4. DA herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
Show answer
Answer: (A) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
The correct answer is (A) — a molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing.

Cas9 is a protein that is part of the CRISPR-Cas9 system — a revolutionary gene-editing tool borrowed from bacteria.

In nature, bacteria use CRISPR-Cas9 to cut and destroy viral DNA.

Scientists adapted this as a 'molecular scissors' to precisely cut, remove, or modify specific genes in any organism.

Tip:

CRISPR = the GPS that finds the gene,

Cas9 = the scissors that cuts it.
Key learnings →Biotechnology
87.
Science and Technology
‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1, 2 and 4
2. B2 and 3
3. C1 and 3
4. D1 and 4 only
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4
The correct answer is (A) — 1, 2 and 4.

RNA interference (RNAi) is a natural process that silences (switches off) specific genes.

Statement 1 is correct — RNAi is used in gene silencing therapies.

Statement 2 is correct — it can treat cancers by silencing genes that help tumours grow.

Statement 4 is correct — RNAi can make crops resistant to viruses by silencing viral genes.

Statement 3 is wrong — RNAi works by blocking gene expression, not by replacing hormones.

Tip: RNAi = gene silencing tool.

It turns genes OFF, so it cannot replace hormones (which need genes turned ON).
Key learnings →Biotechnology
88.
Science and Technology
With reference to the recent developments in science,

which one of the following statements is not correct?
1. AFunctional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
2. BPieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
3. CA piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
4. DCells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.
Show answer
Answer: (A) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
The correct answer is (A) — this is the INCORRECT statement.

You CANNOT create functional chromosomes by joining DNA segments from different species.

Options B, C, and D are all scientifically correct:

artificial DNA can be made in labs (B),

DNA can replicate outside living cells using techniques like PCR (C),

and plant/animal cells can divide in lab petri dishes through cell culture (D).

Tip: DNA from different species won't form a working chromosome — chromosomes need species-specific organization to function.
Key learnings →Biotechnology
89.
Science and Technology
The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
1. Afossils of a kind of dinosaurs
2. Ban early human species
3. Ca cave system found in North-East India
4. Da geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Show answer
Answer: (B) an early human species
The correct answer is (B) — an early human species.

Denisovans are an extinct species of early humans discovered in 2008 from fossils found in the Denisova Cave in Siberia, Russia.

They are closely related to Neanderthals and modern humans.

A Denisovan jawbone was later found in Tibet, showing they lived at high altitudes about 1,60,000 years ago.

Tip:

Denisovans = ancient human cousins

Discovered in a Siberian cave

Related to Neanderthals
Key learnings →Biotechnology
90.
Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
1. AHepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
2. BHepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
3. CGlobally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
4. DSome of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Show answer
Answer: (B) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
The correct answer is (B) — this is the INCORRECT statement.

The statement says 'Hepatitis B does not have a vaccine' — this is wrong because a safe and effective Hepatitis B vaccine DOES exist and is given to all infants within 24 hours of birth.

In contrast, there is currently NO vaccine for Hepatitis C. So the statement has it backwards.

The other statements are true:

Hepatitis B spreads like HIV through body fluids (A),

Hepatitis B and C infect far more people worldwide than HIV (C),

and many infected people show no symptoms for years (D).

Tip: Hepatitis B HAS a vaccine, Hepatitis C does NOT. Don't mix them up!
Key learnings →Health
91.
Science and Technology
In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The correct answer is (D) — 1, 2 and 3.

Wearable devices can do all three tasks.

GPS-enabled smartwatches and fitness bands can track your location (statement 1).

Sleep trackers in devices like Fitbit monitor your sleep patterns (statement 2).

Hearing aids, which are wearable devices, assist hearing-impaired people (statement 3).

Tip: Wearables today can track location, monitor sleep, and even help with hearing — technology on your body.
Key learnings →Health
92.
Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is not correct?

Select the correct answer
1. AHepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
2. BHepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
3. CGlobally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
4. DSome of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Show answer
Answer: (B) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
Hepatitis B is a serious liver infection caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV).

For some people, hepatitis B infection becomes chronic, meaning it lasts more than six months.

Having chronic hepatitis B increases the risk of developing liver failure, liver cancer, or cirrhosis (a condition that permanently scars the liver).

Option (a) is correct: HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that attacks the body's immune system.

It can be transmitted via the exchange of a variety of body fluids from infected people, such as blood, breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions.

The Hepatitis B virus also spreads through contact with the blood, semen, or other body fluid of a person who has HBV, much like HIV.

Option (b) is not correct: Different strains of hepatitis exist, including hepatitis A, B, C, and D.

Hepatitis B and hepatitis C are both viral infections that attack the liver, and they have similar symptoms.

People can be effectively protected against Hepatitis B through vaccination.

In fact, India is the largest producer of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine but there is no effective Hepatitis C vaccine till date.

Option (c) is correct: As per the World Health Organization (WHO), Hepatitis B and C is a leading infectious killer and affects 325 million people worldwide, leading to about 1.4 million deaths a year.

It is the second major killer infectious disease after tuberculosis, and nine times more people are infected with hepatitis than HIV.

Option (d) is correct: Signs and symptoms of hepatitis B range from mild to severe.

They usually appear about one to four months after infection.

Some people, usually young children, may not have any symptoms.
Withdrawn from the question bankHealth
93.
Science and Technology
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 and 2
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1, 3 and 4
4. D2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The correct answer is (B) — 2 and 3 only.

Multi-drug resistance (MDR) in bacteria is mainly caused by:

incorrect or incomplete antibiotic use by people (statement 2) — taking wrong doses lets bacteria survive and develop resistance;

and overuse of antibiotics in livestock farming (statement 3) — antibiotics fed to animals create resistant bacteria that can spread to humans.

Statement 1 is wrong because genetic predisposition of people does not cause bacteria to become drug-resistant.

Statement 4 is wrong because having multiple chronic diseases does not directly cause MDR in bacteria.

Tip: MDR = wrong antibiotic use by humans + antibiotic overuse in animals.
Key learnings →Health
94.
Science and Technology
Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that
1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are store in a system only in India.
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 only.

RBI's data localization directive requires all payment system providers to store their entire payment data within India only.

This is statement 1, and it is correct.

Statement 2 is wrong — the directive does not say the systems must be owned by public sector enterprises.

Private companies can operate them too.

Statement 3 is wrong — the audit report must be submitted to the RBI (not the CAG), and it must be done by CERT-IN empanelled auditors.

Tip: RBI's 'data diktat' = all payment data must be stored in India, but ownership can be private.
Key learnings →IT & Computing

	Movement/Organization	Leader
1.	All India Anti-Untouchability League	Mahatma Gandhi
2.	All India Kisan Sabha	Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3.	Self-Respect Movement	E.

	Famous Place	River
1.	Pandharpur	Chandrabhaga
2.	Tiruchirappalli	Cauvery
3.	Hampi	Malaprabha

	Glacier	River
1.	Bandarpunch	Yamuna
2.	Bara Shigri	Chenab
3.	Milam	Mandakini
4.	Siachen	Nubra
5.	Zemu	Manas

	Sea	Bordering country
1.	Adriatic Sea	Albania
2.	Black Sea	Croatia
3.	Caspian Sea	Kazakhstan
4.	Mediterranean Sea	Morocco
5.	Red Sea	Syria

	Wildlife	Naturally found in
1.	Blue-finned Mahseer	Cauvery River
2.	Irrawaddy Dolphin	Chambal River
3.	Rusty-spotted Cat	Eastern Ghats

95.

Science and Technology

Consider the following statements: A digital signature is

an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or serve on Internet
an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C3 only
D1, 2 and 3

Show answer

Answer: (C) 3 only

Correct Answer: 3 only

The Core Difference: Signature vs. Certificate

The examiner is testing whether you can tell the difference between a Digital Signature (an action/mathematical tool) and a Digital Certificate (an identity file).

1. Identifies the certifying authority (Incorrect)

The Mistake: A digital signature doesn't identify the authority; a Digital Certificate does.
The Truth: Think of a Digital Certificate like a digital passport issued by an official agency (Certifying Authority) to prove who you are.

2. Proof of identity to access a server (Incorrect)

The Mistake: You don't use a signature to log in or access a secure server; you present your Digital Certificate (like showing your ID card at a secure entrance).

3. Electronic method of signing and ensuring content is unchanged (Correct)

The Truth: This is the exact definition of a Digital Signature. It uses cryptography to lock a document. If anyone alters even a single letter after it is signed, the signature instantly breaks, proving the document was tampered with.

The Simple Parallel

Concept	Everyday Equal	What it actually does
Digital Certificate	Your Passport / ID Card	Proves your identity to an outside system or server.
Digital Signature	Ink Signature + Wax Seal	Locks a document to prove it came from you and hasn't been altered.

Because Statements 1 and 2 describe a Certificate, only Statement 3 correctly describes a Signature.

Key learnings →IT & Computing

96.
Science and Technology
In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phones or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 and 4
3. C1, 2 and 3
4. D4 only
Show answer
Answer: (B) 3 and 4
The correct answer is (B) — 3 and 4 only.

The question swaps the definitions of AR and VR in statements 1 and 2.

AR (Augmented Reality) adds digital content ON TOP of the real world (like Pokemon Go on your phone camera).

VR (Virtual Reality) creates a completely artificial world and shuts out the physical world (like wearing an Oculus headset).

So statement 1 describes VR, not AR — making it wrong.

Statement 2 describes AR, not VR — making it wrong.

Statements 3 (AR lets you stay in the real world with digital overlays) and 4 (VR immerses you completely) are correct.

Tip:

AR = real world + digital overlay.

VR = completely virtual world.
Key learnings →IT & Computing
97.
Science and Technology
With reference to communications technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (D) — Neither 1 nor 2.

Statement 1 is wrong because LTE is marketed as 4G (not 3G), and VoLTE is not called 'advanced 3G'.

Statement 2 is also wrong — LTE handles data only, but VoLTE handles both voice AND data simultaneously (not voice-only).

In simple terms: with plain LTE, your phone switches to an older 2G/3G network to make calls, so you lose 4G speed during calls. VoLTE solves this by carrying voice calls over the 4G network itself.

Tip: VoLTE = Voice over LTE, meaning voice rides on top of your 4G connection.
Key learnings →IT & Computing
98.
Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible in the patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 3 only
The correct answer is (C) — 3 only.

Statement 1 is wrong — under the Indian Patents Act, plants, animals, seeds, and 'essentially biological processes' for producing them CANNOT be patented.

So a biological process to create a seed is not patentable.

Statement 2 is wrong — the Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) did exist in India (set up in 1958).

Statement 3 is correct — plant varieties cannot be patented under Indian patent law, though they can be protected under the Plant Variety Protection Act.

Tip: In India, you cannot patent seeds, plants, or biological processes — but plant varieties get separate protection.
Key learnings →Science and Technology Governance
99.
Science and Technology
For the measurement/ estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The correct answer is (D) — 1, 2 and 3.

Satellites and remote sensing can measure all three.

Chlorophyll content in vegetation (statement 1) is measured using NDVI (Normalized Difference Vegetation Index), which detects how green and healthy plants are based on how they reflect light.

Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies (statement 2) can be estimated by satellites measuring methane and CO2 concentrations in the atmosphere.

Land surface temperatures (statement 3) are routinely measured by thermal sensors on satellites.

Tip: Satellites can 'see' plant health (NDVI), gas emissions (spectral analysis), and surface temperature (thermal sensors).
Key learnings →Space
100.
Science and Technology
Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
1. A‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
2. B‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
3. CPossibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
4. DIt enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.
Show answer
Answer: (B) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
The correct answer is (B) — Gravitational waves were detected.

In 2016, the LIGO detectors detected gravitational waves — ripples in space-time — produced by the merger of two massive black holes billions of light-years away. This was a historic confirmation of Einstein's prediction from his General Theory of Relativity.

Tip:

Black hole mergers create gravitational waves.

LIGO detected them in 2016 — a Nobel Prize-winning discovery.
Key learnings →Space
101.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
1. AJapan
2. BRussia
3. CThe United Kingdom
4. DThe United States of America
Show answer
Answer: (B) Russia
The correct answer is (B) — Russia.

India and Russia signed the 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' on October 5, 2018, in New Delhi.

India and Russia have a long-standing partnership in nuclear energy, including the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant.

Tip: India's biggest nuclear energy partner is Russia.
Key learnings →Major Powers
102.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B2, 3 and 4 only
3. C2 and 4 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 4 only
The correct answer is (C) — 2 and 4 only.

Statement 1 is wrong — the 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants' belongs to UNTOC (not UNCAC).

Statement 2 is correct — UNCAC is the first legally binding global anti-corruption treaty.

Statement 3 is wrong — the specific chapter on returning stolen assets is actually a feature of UNCAC (not UNTOC). The question swaps features between the two conventions to confuse you.

Statement 4 is correct — UNODC is responsible for implementing both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Tip:

UNCAC = anti-corruption + asset recovery.

UNTOC = organized crime + smuggling protocols.

UNODC oversees both.
Key learnings →Multilateral System
103.
World Affairs (International Relations)
With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
The correct answer is (A) — 1 only.

AIIB indeed has more than 80 member nations, so statement 1 is correct.
However, China (not India) is the largest shareholder in AIIB — India is the second largest.
So statement 2 is wrong.
Statement 3 is also wrong because AIIB has many non-Asian members too, like the UK, Germany, and France.

Tip: AIIB was started by China, so China holds the biggest share.
Key learnings →Multilateral System
104.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its from 25th May, 2018?
1. AAustralia
2. BCanada
3. CThe European Union
4. DThe United States of America
Show answer
Answer: (C) The European Union
The correct answer is (C) — The European Union.

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is one of the world's strongest data privacy laws.

It was adopted by the EU Parliament in April 2016 and came into effect on May 25, 2018.

It protects the personal data and privacy of all EU citizens.

Tip: GDPR = EU's landmark privacy law.

It has become a global benchmark for data protection.
Key learnings →Thematic / Cross-cutting Issues

End of paper · 104 questions · 2018 paper →

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