Home / Papers / UPSC Prelims GS 2018

1. 1.
   Ancient and Medieval Indian History

   Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

   1. AFrancois Bernier
   2. BJean-Baptiste Tavernier
   3. CJean de Thevenot
   4. DAbbe Barthelemy Carre

   Show answer

   Answer: (B) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

   Correct Answer: (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

   Jean-Baptiste Tavernier was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveller who visited India six times between 1631 and 1668.

   He is famous for:

   • Writing extensively about Indian diamond mines, particularly the Kollur mines in present-day Andhra Pradesh.
   • Acquiring the famous 112-carat blue diamond that later became the legendary Hope Diamond.
   • He sold this diamond to King Louis XIV of France.
   • His detailed accounts of Indian gem trade and diamond mines are historically invaluable.

   Why the other options are wrong:

   • Francois Bernier — A French physician who described Mughal politics and administration, not diamonds.
   • Jean de Thevenot — A French traveller who visited India but didn't focus on diamonds.
   • Abbe Barthelemy Carre — A French traveller who described Indian customs but not diamond mines.

   REMEMBER: Tavernier = diamonds and diamond mines of India.

   He bought the Hope Diamond from Kollur mines (AP).

   Think 'Tavernier = Trader of diamonds.'.

   Key learnings →Later Mughals, Marathas, and Coming of Europeans
2. 2.
   Ancient and Medieval Indian History

   Which reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect belongs to

   1. ABuddhism
   2. BJainism
   3. CVaishnavism
   4. DShaivism

   Show answer

   Answer: (B) Jainism

   Correct Answer: (b) Jainism

   The Sthanakvasi sect belongs to Jainism, specifically to the Shvetambara (white-clad) branch of Jainism.

   What makes Sthanakvasi unique? Unlike most other Jain sects, Sthanakvasis do NOT believe in idol worship. They pray in simple prayer halls (called sthanak) without any idols or images. The word 'Sthanakvasi' literally means 'those who worship in halls.'

   For comparison, Jainism has two main branches:

   • Shvetambara (white-clad) — which includes Sthanakvasi (no idol worship) and Murtipujak (idol worshippers)
   • Digambara (sky-clad/nude) — the other major branch

   Why the other options are wrong:

   • Buddhism has its own sects (Theravada, Mahayana, Vajrayana) but Sthanakvasi is not one of them.
   • Vaishnavism (worship of Vishnu) and Shaivism (worship of Shiva) are Hindu traditions.

   REMEMBER: Sthanakvasi = Jainism (Shvetambara branch). Key feature: NO idol worship. They pray in plain halls (sthanaks). If you see 'Sthanakvasi' or 'Terapanthi' — think Jainism.

   Key learnings →Mahajanapadas, Buddhism, Jainism and Pre-Mauryan India
3. 3.
   Ancient and Medieval Indian History

   Which reference to Indian history,

   who among the following is a future Buddha,

   yet to come to save the world?

   1. AAvalokiteshvara
   2. BLokesvara
   3. CMaityera
   4. DPadmapani

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) Maityera

   Correct Answer: (c) Maitreya

   In Buddhist belief, Maitreya is the future Buddha — the next great enlightened being who will come to Earth when the teachings of the current Buddha (Gautama Buddha) have been completely forgotten.

   • Maitreya is a Bodhisattva (an enlightened being who delays entering Nirvana to help others).
   • He is believed to currently reside in Tushita heaven, waiting for the right time to be born on Earth.
   • When he comes, he will achieve complete enlightenment and teach the pure Dharma (Buddhist law) again.

   Why the other options are wrong:

   • Avalokiteshvara — The Bodhisattva of compassion (very important in Mahayana Buddhism), but NOT the future Buddha.
   • Lokesvara — Another name for Avalokiteshvara ('Lord of the World').
   • Padmapani — Also another name for Avalokiteshvara ('The Lotus-Bearer'). The famous Ajanta Cave painting shows Padmapani.

   REMEMBER: Maitreya = FUTURE Buddha (yet to come).

   Avalokiteshvara = Padmapani = Lokesvara = Bodhisattva of COMPASSION (all three names refer to the same being).

   Don't confuse them!

   Key learnings →Mahajanapadas, Buddhism, Jainism and Pre-Mauryan India
4. 4.
   Modern Indian History

   The staple commodities of export by the English East Indian Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

   1. ARaw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
   2. BSugar, salt, zinc and lead
   3. CCopper, silver, gold, spices and tea
   4. DCotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

   Show answer

   Answer: (D) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

   Correct Answer: (d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

   The main commodities exported from Bengal by the English East India Company in the mid-18th century were:

   1. Cotton — Raw cotton from Bengal was a major export to feed British textile mills.

   2. Silk — Bengal was famous for its silk, especially Murshidabad silk.

   3. Saltpetre (potassium nitrate) — Used to make gunpowder. Bengal was one of the world's largest suppliers.

   4. Opium — Grown in Bengal and Bihar, exported mainly to China (this later caused the Opium Wars with China).

   Why the other options are wrong:

   • Option A mentions oil-seeds — not a major Bengal export at that time.

   • Option B mentions sugar, salt, zinc, lead — these were not the staple exports from Bengal.

   • Option C mentions copper, silver, gold, spices, tea — Bengal was not known for metals exports, and tea cultivation started much later (1830s).

   REMEMBER: Bengal's 4 main exports = Cotton, Silk, Saltpetre (gunpowder ingredient), Opium. Think 'CSSO' or remember: 'Cotton-Silk for clothes, Saltpetre for guns, Opium for China trade.'

   Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
5. 5.
   Modern Indian History

   Which among the following events happened earliest?

   1. ASwami dayanand established Arya Samaj.
   2. BDinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
   3. CBankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
   4. DSatyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.

   Show answer

   Answer: (B) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.

   Correct Answer: (b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan

   This is a chronology question. You need to know the dates:

   1. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote 'Neeldarpan' (Nil Darpan) — 1858-59 (EARLIEST)
   2. Satyendranath Tagore passed the Indian Civil Services exam — 1863
   3. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj — 1875
   4. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote 'Anandmath' — 1882 (LATEST)

   So the chronological order is: Neeldarpan (1858) → ICS exam (1863) → Arya Samaj (1875) → Anandmath (1882).

   Quick notes on each:

   • Neeldarpan depicted the suffering of indigo farmers under British planters.
   • Satyendranath Tagore (elder brother of Rabindranath Tagore) was the first Indian to crack the ICS exam.
   • Arya Samaj was a Hindu reform movement founded in Bombay.
   • Anandmath contained the famous song 'Vande Mataram.'

   REMEMBER: Use this timeline trick: Neel(1858) → Sat(1863) → Arya(1875) → Anand(1882). 'NSAA' in chronological order. Neeldarpan is the earliest event among all four options.

   Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
6. 6.
   Modern Indian History

   After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

   1. The territories called 'Santhal Paraganas' were created.
   2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.

   Select the correct answer using the code given below:

   1. A1 only
   2. B2 only
   3. CBoth 1 and 2
   4. DNeither 1 nor 2

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

   Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

   Both statements are correct:

   1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: After the Santhal Uprising (1855-56), the British carved out a separate territory called 'Santhal Parganas' (about 5,500 square miles) from the districts of Bhagalpur and Birbhum. The idea was to create a dedicated area for the Santhals and govern them with special laws to prevent future revolts.

   2. Statement 2 is CORRECT: The British also appointed a special administrator for the Santhal Parganas. This administrator had more direct control over the area, different from the usual district administration. Special regulations were introduced to address the Santhals' grievances, particularly about land and money-lending issues.

   Background: The Santhals revolted because they were being exploited by moneylenders (called dikus/outsiders) and zamindars. The British response after the revolt was to isolate the Santhals in a separate territory with special rules.

   REMEMBER: After Santhal Uprising → Santhal Parganas created (carved from Bhagalpur and Birbhum) + special administrator appointed. The British tried to address grievances by creating a separate territory with special laws.

   Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
7. 7.
   Modern Indian History

   Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

   1. Aincrease in the export of Indian handicrafts
   2. Bgrowth in the number of Indian owned factories
   3. Ccommercialization of Indian agriculture
   4. Drapid inrease in the urban population

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) commercialization of Indian agriculture

   Correct Answer: (c) Commercialization of Indian agriculture

   The British rule in the 19th century led to the commercialization of Indian agriculture.

   This means farmers shifted from growing food crops (for their own consumption) to growing cash/commercial crops (for sale in the market), like indigo, cotton, jute, tea, and opium.

   Why did this happen?

   • The British needed raw materials for their factories in England.
   • They forced or incentivised farmers to grow crops that could be exported.
   • The result was that Indian farmers became dependent on market prices and vulnerable to famines (because they were growing cash crops instead of food).

   Why the other options are wrong:

   • Option A: Indian handicraft EXPORTS actually DECLINED (not increased) because British machine-made goods flooded Indian markets.
   • Option B: Indian-owned factories did NOT grow much. The British actively discouraged Indian industrialization.
   • Option D: Urban population did NOT increase rapidly. India remained largely rural during British rule.

   REMEMBER: British rule → Commercialization of agriculture (food crops → cash crops). Indian handicrafts declined (deindustrialization). Farmers grew indigo, cotton, opium for British export needs.

   Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
8. 8.
   Modern Indian History

   Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

   1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
   2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
   3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

   Select the correct answer using the code given below:

   1. A1 and 2 only
   2. B2 and 3 only
   3. C1 and 3 only
   4. D1, 2 and 3

   Show answer

   Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

   Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

   1. Grants-in-Aid system — CORRECT: Wood's Dispatch (1854) introduced the Grants-in-Aid system, where the government would give financial help to private schools that met certain standards. This encouraged private participation in education.

   2. Establishment of universities — CORRECT: Wood's Dispatch recommended setting up universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras (modelled on the University of London). These were indeed established in 1857.

   3. English as medium at all levels — WRONG: Wood's Dispatch did NOT mandate English as the medium of instruction at all levels. In fact, it recommended using vernacular (local) languages for lower levels of education and English for higher education. It recognised the importance of Indian languages.

   What was Wood's Dispatch? Charles Wood, the President of the Board of Control, sent this dispatch in 1854. It is called the 'Magna Carta of English Education in India' because it was the first comprehensive plan for education in India.

   REMEMBER: Wood's Dispatch (1854) = Grants-in-Aid + Universities (Calcutta, Bombay, Madras). But it did NOT impose English at ALL levels — it supported vernacular languages too.

   Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
9. 9.
   Modern Indian History

   Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

   1. Charter Act of 1813
   2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
   3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy.

   Select the correct answer using the code given below:

   1. A1 and 2 only
   2. B2 only
   3. C1 and 3 only
   4. D1, 2 and 3

   Show answer

   Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

   Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

   All three contributed to the introduction of English education in India:

   1. Charter Act of 1813 — CORRECT: This was the first official step. It allocated Rs. 1 lakh annually for 'the revival and improvement of literature and the encouragement of the learned natives of India, and for the introduction and promotion of a knowledge of the sciences among the inhabitants.' However, the money wasn't actually spent until 1823.

   2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823 — CORRECT: This committee was set up to decide how to spend the Rs. 1 lakh sanctioned by the Charter Act. It had two groups — Orientalists (who wanted education in Sanskrit and Arabic) and Anglicists (who wanted English education). The debate between them eventually led to the promotion of English.

   3. Orientalist-Anglicist Controversy — CORRECT: This was the famous debate within the Committee about whether to teach in Indian languages or English. The Anglicists (led by Thomas Macaulay) won with Macaulay's Minute of 1835, where he argued that English education should be promoted in India.

   REMEMBER: Path to English education: Charter Act 1813 (money allocated) → Committee of 1823 (who to educate?) → Orientalist-Anglicist debate → Macaulay's Minute 1835 (English wins). All three steps were important.

   Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
10. 10.
    Modern Indian History

    With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:

    	Institution	Founder
    1.	Sanskrit College at Benaras	William Jones
    2.	Calcutta Madarsa	Warren Hastings
    3.	Fort William College	Arthur Wellesley

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3
    4. D3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

    Let's check each pair:

    1. Sanskrit College at Benares — William Jones: WRONG.

       The Sanskrit College at Benares (Varanasi) was founded by Jonathan Duncan in 1791, NOT by William Jones.

       William Jones was the founder of the Asiatic Society of Bengal (1784) and a famous Orientalist, but he didn't start this college.

    2. Calcutta Madrasa — Warren Hastings: CORRECT.

       Warren Hastings established the Calcutta Madrasa in 1781 for the study of Muslim law and related subjects.

       This was part of the British policy of learning and respecting local traditions in the early colonial period.

    3. Fort William College — Arthur Wellesley: WRONG.

       Fort William College in Calcutta was founded by Lord Wellesley (Richard Wellesley, the Governor-General) in 1800, NOT Arthur Wellesley.

       Arthur Wellesley was his brother (who later became the Duke of Wellington).

       This is a common trick — don't confuse the two Wellesleys!

    REMEMBER:

    • Sanskrit College Benares = Jonathan Duncan (1791).
    • Calcutta Madrasa = Warren Hastings (1781).
    • Fort William College = Lord RICHARD Wellesley (not ARTHUR Wellesley).

    The trick is confusing the Wellesley brothers.

    Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
11. 11.
    Modern Indian History

    Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

    1. ATo maintain a large standing army at other's expense
    2. BTo keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
    3. CTo secure a fixed income for the Company
    4. DTo establish British paramountcy over the Indian States

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) To secure a fixed income for the Company

    Correct Answer: (c) To secure a fixed income for the Company

    This is a 'which does NOT apply' question. Let's check each option:

    • Option A: Maintain a large army at others' expense — YES, this APPLIES. The Indian ruler had to pay for the British troops stationed in his territory. The Company maintained a large army without spending its own money.

    • Option B: Keep India safe from Napoleonic danger — YES, this APPLIES. One reason for the Subsidiary Alliance was Wellesley's fear that Napoleon (France) might attack India with help from Indian rulers. The alliance prevented Indian rulers from allying with the French.

    • Option C: Secure a fixed income for the Company — NO, this does NOT apply. The Company did not earn a 'fixed income' from the Subsidiary Alliance. Instead, the Indian ruler paid for the British troops, but this was a military expense, not a commercial revenue stream for the Company.

    • Option D: Establish British paramountcy over Indian States — YES, this APPLIES. The Alliance made Indian rulers dependent on the British for military protection, effectively making them subordinate to the Company.

    REMEMBER: Subsidiary Alliance (Lord Wellesley) = Indian rulers had to:

    (1) pay for British troops,

    (2) not hire Europeans without British approval,

    (3) not negotiate with other states independently.

    In return, British 'protected' them. It was about military control, not earning fixed income.

    Key learnings →British Conquest, Expansion and Revolt of 1857
12. 12.
    Modern Indian History

    Consider the following events:

    1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
    2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'.
    3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
    4. Goa became a part of independent India.

    Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

    1. A4 - 1 - 2 – 3
    2. B3 - 2 - 1 - 4
    3. C4 - 2 - 1 – 3
    4. D3 - 1 - 2 - 4

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4

    Correct Answer: (b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4

    This is a chronological ordering question. Here are the dates:

    1. First democratically elected Communist government in a State — 1957 (EMS Namboodiripad became CM of Kerala)

    2. India's largest bank nationalized/merged — 1955 (Imperial Bank of India became State Bank of India on July 1, 1955)

    3. Air India nationalized — 1953 (Air India was nationalized on August 1, 1953)

    4. Goa became a State — 1987 (Goa was liberated in 1961 but became a full State only in 1987; before that, it was a Union Territory)

    Chronological order (earliest to latest):

    3 (Air India, 1953) → 2 (SBI, 1955) → 1 (Communist Kerala, 1957) → 4 (Goa State, 1987)

    So the answer is: 3 - 2 - 1 - 4

    REMEMBER: The sequence is Air India (53) → SBI (55) → Communist Kerala (57) → Goa State (87). A memory trick: 'ASK G' — Air India, SBI, Kerala Communist, Goa — in that order.

    Note: Goa was LIBERATED in 1961 but became a STATE in 1987 — don't confuse these two dates!

    Key learnings →Freedom and Partition (1939-1947)
13. 13.
    Modern Indian History

    Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

    1. AActive all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
    2. BActive involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
    3. CJoining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement
    4. DDrastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement

    Correct Answer: (c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement

    The Champaran Satyagraha (1917) is most significant because it linked the struggles of ordinary farmers (peasants) with India's broader freedom movement for the first time.

    What happened?

    Indigo farmers in Champaran (Bihar) were being forced by British planters to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land (called tinkathia system) under extremely exploitative conditions.

    Gandhi went to Champaran, investigated the situation, and launched a Satyagraha.

    Why is this so significant?

    • Before Champaran, the freedom movement was mostly led by educated, urban elites.
    • Champaran brought the problems of ordinary rural farmers into the national spotlight.
    • It showed that the national movement was not just about political freedom but also about the economic exploitation of the common people.
    • It was also Gandhi's first major Satyagraha in India (after returning from South Africa).

    REMEMBER: Champaran (1917) = peasant issues + national movement joined together.

    Gandhi's first Satyagraha in India.

    Tinkathia system (forced indigo farming) was the issue.

    Key significance: freedom struggle moved from cities to villages.

    Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)
14. 14.
    Modern Indian History

    Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948?

    1. AB. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
    2. BJayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
    3. CC.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
    4. DAshok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujan and G.G. Mehta

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujan and G.G. Mehta

    Correct Answer: (d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujan and G.G. Mehta

    The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) was founded on December 24, 1948, in Howrah (near Kolkata). Its founders included Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujan, G.G. Mehta, Basawan Singh (Sinha), R.S. Ruikar, and others.

    HMS was established by Socialists and independent trade unionists. It was affiliated with the socialist movement, not the Communist Party.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A (B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad, K.C. George) — These were Communist leaders from Kerala, associated with CPI, not HMS.
    • Option B (Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay, M.N. Roy) — These leaders belonged to different ideological camps and didn't come together to found HMS.
    • Option C (C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj, Veeresalingam Pantulu) — These are South Indian leaders not associated with HMS.

    REMEMBER: Hind Mazdoor Sabha (1948) = founded by Ashok Mehta and socialist trade unionists. Other major trade unions: AITUC (Communist), BMS (RSS-affiliated), INTUC (Congress-affiliated).

    Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)
15. 15.
    Modern Indian History

    In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

    1. AFederal Legislature
    2. BGovernor General
    3. CProvincial Legislature
    4. DProvincial Governors

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Governor General

    Correct Answer: (b) Governor General

    Under the Government of India Act, 1935, residuary powers (powers over subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists) were given to the Governor General, not to any legislature.

    This is different from other federations:

    • In the USA, residuary powers go to the States.
    • In Canada, residuary powers go to the Centre.
    • In India's current Constitution, residuary powers go to the Parliament (Centre).

    But under the 1935 Act, the Governor General personally held this power, which made it unique and reflected the colonial government's desire to keep maximum control.

    The 1935 Act divided subjects into 3 lists: Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List. Anything not covered by these lists was under the Governor General's discretion.

    REMEMBER: GoI Act 1935 → residuary powers = Governor General. Current Indian Constitution → residuary powers = Parliament (Union List, Entry 97). The 1935 Act kept more power with the British-appointed Governor General.

    Key learnings →Gandhian Phase II (1929-1939)
16. 16.
    Modern Indian History

    In 1920, which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha"?

    1. AAll India Home Rule League
    2. BHindu Mahasabha
    3. CSouth Indian Liberal Federation
    4. DThe Servants of India Society

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) All India Home Rule League

    Correct Answer: (a) All India Home Rule League

    In 1920, Mahatma Gandhi became the President of the All India Home Rule League.

    Under his leadership, the organization's name was changed from 'All India Home Rule League' to 'Swarajya Sabha.'

    Background:

    The Home Rule League was originally started in 1916 by

    • Annie Besant (All India Home Rule League)
    • Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Indian Home Rule League — separate from Besant's).

    Their goal was to demand self-governance (Home Rule) for India within the British Empire.

    When Gandhi took over, the name was changed to reflect the goal of 'Swaraj' (self-rule/independence).

    Why not the others:

    • Hindu Mahasabha — A Hindu nationalist organization, not renamed to Swarajya Sabha.
    • South Indian Liberal Federation (Justice Party) — A political party in Madras, not renamed.
    • Servants of India Society — Founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, not renamed.

    REMEMBER: Home Rule League → renamed to Swarajya Sabha in 1920 by Gandhi.

    Annie Besant started it in 1916, Gandhi renamed it in 1920.

    'Home Rule' to 'Swaraj' — same idea (self-rule), different name.

    Key learnings →Militant Nationalism (1905-1918)
17. 17.
    Modern Indian History

    He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly.

    He was

    1. AAurobindo Ghosh
    2. BBipin Chandra Pal
    3. CLala Lajpat Rai
    4. DMotilal Nehru

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Lala Lajpat Rai

    Correct Answer: (c) Lala Lajpat Rai

    The question gives three clues — let's match each one:

    1. 'Wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna' — Lala Lajpat Rai was a prolific writer. He wrote biographies of Italian revolutionaries Mazzini and Garibaldi (1896) and of Shivaji and Shri Krishna (1898). He chose Mazzini and Garibaldi to inspire Indian youth with the story of Italian unification.

    2. 'Stayed in America for some time' — Lajpat Rai travelled to the USA in 1907 and spent time touring Sikh communities along the West Coast.

    3. 'Elected to the Central Assembly' — He joined the Swaraj Party in 1926 and was elected Deputy Leader in the Central Legislative Assembly.

    Why not the others?

    • Aurobindo Ghosh — Known for spiritual writings, not these biographies.
    • Bipin Chandra Pal — Part of Lal-Bal-Pal but didn't write these specific works.
    • Motilal Nehru — A lawyer and Congress leader, not known for these biographies.

    REMEMBER: Lal-Bal-Pal = Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal.

    Lajpat Rai = biographies of Italian + Indian heroes + went to USA + Central Assembly.

    Key learnings →Rise of Nationalism and Moderate Phase (1870-1905)
18. 18.
    Art and Culture

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Craft	Heritage of
    1.	Puthukkuli shawls	Tamil Nadu
    2.	Sujni embroidery	Maharashtra
    3.	Uppada Jamdani saris	Karnataka

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2
    3. C3 only
    4. D2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu: CORRECT. These shawls are made by the Toda tribe of Tamil Nadu (Nilgiri Hills). They do intricate embroidery called 'Pithukuli' on cream-coloured shawls using red and black threads. The shawl is reversible (can be used from both sides).

    2. Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra: WRONG. Sujni (also called Sujini) embroidery is from BIHAR, not Maharashtra. It originates from the Bhusura village of Muzaffarpur district in Bihar. It uses running stitches to create narrative designs on quilts.

    3. Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka: WRONG. Uppada Jamdani saris are from ANDHRA PRADESH, not Karnataka. They are woven in Uppada, a small town in the East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh. The Jamdani technique involves weaving patterns directly into the fabric.

    REMEMBER:

    • Puthukkuli shawls = Toda tribe = Tamil Nadu (correct).
    • Sujni embroidery = Bihar (not Maharashtra).
    • Uppada Jamdani = Andhra Pradesh (not Karnataka).

    These craft-state matching questions are common in UPSC — memorize unusual pairs.

    Key learnings →Handicrafts and Living Traditions
19. 19.
    Art and Culture

    With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

    1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
    2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT:

       Buland Darwaza and the Khankah (Sufi monastery) at Fatehpur Sikri were built by Emperor Akbar.

       Buland Darwaza (1576) commemorates Akbar's victory over Gujarat.

       Both structures use a combination of red sandstone with white marble inlay — this is a hallmark of Akbar's architecture.

       The white marble provides decorative relief and inscriptions against the red sandstone base.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG:

       The Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow were NOT built using red sandstone and marble.

       They were built by Nawab Asaf-ud-Daula of Awadh in the late 18th century using brick and lime (not stone and marble).

       Instead of expensive marble, the Nawabs used stucco ornamentation (called gajkari) to decorate the buildings, along with shells and mother of pearl to create a shine resembling marble.

       The Rumi Darwaza (also called the Turkish Gateway) is the main entrance to the Bara Imambara and is noted for its intricate brickwork, not stone or marble.

    REMEMBER:

    Fatehpur Sikri (Akbar) = red sandstone + white marble (Statement 1 correct).

    Lucknow Nawabi architecture (Bara Imambara, Rumi Darwaza) = brick + lime + stucco, NOT red sandstone and marble (Statement 2 wrong).

    The materials are the key difference between Mughal and Nawabi architecture.

    Key learnings →Indian Architecture
20. 20.
    Art and Culture

    With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

    1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
    2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
    3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
    4. Annamacharyakirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 and 4 only
    3. C1, 2 and 3
    4. D2, 3 and 4

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 and 4 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG: Most of Tyagaraja's kritis (compositions) are in praise of Lord RAMA, not Lord Krishna.

       While both Rama and Krishna are incarnations of Vishnu, Tyagaraja was specifically a Rama devotee.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT: Tyagaraja is credited with introducing the sangati (structured variation of musical lines) within a composition.

       This means repeating a musical phrase with slight variations — a technique that became central to Carnatic music performance.

    3. Statement 3 is WRONG: Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are NOT contemporaries.

       Annamacharya lived in the 15th century (1408-1503), while Tyagaraja lived in the 18th-19th century (1767-1847).

       They are separated by nearly 300 years.

    4. Statement 4 is CORRECT: Annamacharya was a 15th-century saint-composer who composed thousands of sankirtanas (devotional songs) in praise of Lord Venkateswara (a form of Vishnu) at Tirumala-Tirupati.

       He is considered the grandfather of Telugu song.

    REMEMBER:

    Tyagaraja = Rama devotee (18th century).

    Annamacharya = Venkateswara devotee (15th century).

    They are NOT contemporaries — 300 years apart.

    Tyagaraja is part of the Trinity of Carnatic Music (along with Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri).

    Key learnings →Indian Music, Dance and Theatre
21. 21.
    Art and Culture

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Tradition	State
    1.	Chapchar Kut festival	Mizoram
    2.	Khongjom Parba ballad	Manipur
    3.	Thang-Ta dance	Sikkim

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2
    3. C3 only
    4. D2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 1 and 2

    Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2

    1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram: CORRECT. Chapchar Kut is the biggest and most popular festival of the Mizo people, celebrated in March during spring after the completion of their jhum (slash-and-burn) cultivation work.

    2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur: CORRECT. Khongjom Parba is a traditional style of ballad singing from Manipur, performed with a dholak (drum). It tells the story of the heroic Anglo-Manipuri War of 1891, especially the Battle of Khongjom.

    3. Thang-Ta dance — Sikkim: WRONG. Thang-Ta is NOT from Sikkim — it is from Manipur. It is a martial art form of the Meitei people of Manipur. 'Thang' means sword and 'Ta' means spear. So this pair is incorrectly matched.

    REMEMBER: Both Khongjom Parba AND Thang-Ta belong to Manipur (not Sikkim). Chapchar Kut = Mizoram's spring festival.

    Key learnings →Indian Music, Dance and Theatre
22. 22.
    Art and Culture

    The well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the

    1. ABundi school
    2. BJaipur school
    3. CKangra school
    4. DKishangarh school

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Kishangarh school

    Correct Answer: (d) Kishangarh school

    'Bani Thani' is a famous Indian miniature painting from the Kishangarh school of painting (Rajasthan).

    Key facts:

    • It was painted by artist Nihal Chand.
    • The subject 'Bani Thani' was a singer and poet in the court of King Sawant Singh of Kishangarh.
    • She is often called the 'Indian Mona Lisa' because of her distinctive beauty and the painting's fame.
    • The painting is known for its distinctive features: elongated eyes, thin pointed nose, and curved lips.

    Why not the others?

    • Bundi school — Known for its vibrant colors and depictions of hunting scenes.
    • Jaipur school — Known for royal portraits and court scenes.
    • Kangra school — Known for delicate depictions of Radha-Krishna themes (from Himachal Pradesh).

    REMEMBER: Bani Thani = Kishangarh school = 'Indian Mona Lisa' = painted by Nihal Chand. Kishangarh is in Rajasthan.

    Key learnings →Indian Sculpture, Pottery and Paintings
23. 23.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
    2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do no have gold mines.
    3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3
    4. D3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 3 only

    Correct Answer: (d) 3 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:

       State Governments DO have the power to auction non-coal mines.

       Unlike coal (which is auctioned by the Central Government), non-coal mineral mining licences are auctioned by the respective State Governments.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG:

       Both Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand DO have gold deposits.

       India has gold deposits across several states including Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

       Karnataka (especially the Kolar Gold Fields) is the most famous for gold.

    3. Statement 3 is CORRECT:

       Iron ore is found in Rajasthan, specifically in the Bhilwara district.

       India has iron ore deposits in many states including Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, and Rajasthan.

    REMEMBER:

    Non-coal mines = auctioned by STATE governments (not Centre).

    Gold deposits exist in many states including AP and Jharkhand.

    Iron ore exists in Rajasthan (Bhilwara).

    Key learnings →Economic Geography
24. 24.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
    2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
    3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3
    3. C3 only
    4. D1 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: Barren Island volcano is India's only confirmed active volcano.

       It is located in the Andaman Sea, in the Indian territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: Barren Island lies about 140 km east of PORT BLAIR (which is in South Andaman), NOT east of Great Nicobar.

       Great Nicobar is the southernmost island of the Andaman and Nicobar chain, located much further south.

       The question tries to confuse you by swapping Port Blair with Great Nicobar.

    3. Statement 3 is WRONG (if present): Barren Island volcano was dormant for over 150 years before it erupted again in 1991.

       It has shown activity multiple times since then (1991, 1994-95, 2005-06, and later).

       It did not stay dormant after its first recorded eruption.

    REMEMBER: Barren Island = India's ONLY active volcano = in Andaman Sea = 140 km east of PORT BLAIR (not Great Nicobar).

    It woke up again in 1991 after being dormant for 150+ years.

    Great Nicobar is the southernmost island — don't confuse it with Port Blair's location.

    Key learnings →Geomorphology
25. 25.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
    2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
    3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

    Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: Earth's magnetic field has indeed reversed many times throughout its history.

       The North and South magnetic poles have swapped positions.

       Over the last 20 million years, this has happened roughly every 200,000 to 300,000 years.

       The last reversal occurred about 780,000 years ago.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: Earth did NOT have 50% more oxygen than today when it was created 4 billion years ago.

       In fact, early Earth had very little or NO free oxygen.

       The atmosphere was mostly carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and water vapor.

       Oxygen levels only rose significantly about 2.4 billion years ago during the 'Great Oxidation Event' when photosynthetic organisms began producing oxygen.

    3. Statement 3 is CORRECT: The molten iron in Earth's outer core moves and creates electrical currents, which in turn generate the magnetic field.

       Think of it as a giant natural dynamo — flowing liquid iron generates Earth's magnetic field.

       This is called the 'geodynamo theory.'

    REMEMBER:

    • Earth's magnetic field has flipped many times (every ~200,000-300,000 years).
    • Early Earth had almost NO oxygen (not more).
    • Earth's magnetic field is created by molten iron flowing in the outer core (dynamo effect).
    Key learnings →Geomorphology
26. 26.
    Geography

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Towns sometimes mentioned in news	Country
    1.	Aleppo	Syria
    2.	Kirkuk	Yemen
    3.	Mosul	Palestine
    4.	Mazar-i-sharif	Afghanistan

    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B1 and 4
    3. C2 and 3
    4. D3 and 4

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 1 and 4

    Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 4 (Aleppo-Syria, Mazar-i-sharif-Afghanistan)

    Let's check each pair:

    1. Aleppo — Syria: CORRECT. Aleppo is a major city in Syria, devastated during the Syrian Civil War.

    2. Kirkuk — Yemen: WRONG. Kirkuk is in IRAQ, not Yemen. It's an oil-rich city with a mixed Kurdish-Arab population.

    3. Mosul — Palestine: WRONG. Mosul is in IRAQ, not Palestine. It was captured by ISIS in 2014 and liberated in 2017.

    4. Mazar-i-sharif — Afghanistan: CORRECT. Mazar-i-sharif is a major city in northern Afghanistan.

    REMEMBER:

    • Aleppo = Syria.
    • Kirkuk and Mosul = both in Iraq (not Yemen or Palestine).
    • Mazar-i-sharif = Afghanistan.

    All these cities were in the news due to conflict and war.

    Key learnings →Human Geography
27. 27.
    Geography

    Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

    1. AKodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
    2. BKolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
    3. CNainital (Uttarakhand)
    4. DRenuka (Himachal Pradesh)

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

    Correct Answer: (a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

    Kodaikanal Lake is an ARTIFICIAL (man-made) lake.

    It was created in 1863 by Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, when the British were developing Kodaikanal as a hill station.

    The other lakes are all NATURAL:

    • Kolleru Lake (Andhra Pradesh) — A natural freshwater lake between the Krishna and Godavari deltas. It's one of the largest freshwater lakes in India.
    • Nainital Lake (Uttarakhand) — A natural crescent-shaped lake formed by tectonic activity. It's a famous tourist destination.
    • Renuka Lake (Himachal Pradesh) — A natural lake in Sirmaur district, believed to be the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh. It is named after Goddess Renuka.

    REMEMBER: Kodaikanal Lake = artificial/man-made (created by the British in 1863). The other three (Kolleru, Nainital, Renuka) are all natural lakes. 'Kodai' sounds like 'code' — think 'coded/made by humans' to remember it's artificial.

    Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
28. 28.
    Geography

    Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

    1. ABengaluru
    2. BHyderabad
    3. CNagpur
    4. DPune

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Bengaluru

    Correct Answer: (a) Bengaluru

    This is a geography/map-based question about longitudes.

    Delhi is located at approximately 77.1° East longitude. Now let's compare:

    • Bengaluru: ~77.6° E — very close to Delhi!
    • Hyderabad: ~78.5° E
    • Nagpur: ~79.1° E
    • Pune: ~73.9° E

    Bengaluru's longitude (77.6° E) is closest to Delhi's (77.1° E) — the difference is less than 0.5 degrees.

    This might seem surprising because Delhi and Bengaluru are far apart north-to-south, but they lie on almost the same longitude (same vertical line on the map).

    REMEMBER: Delhi and Bengaluru share nearly the same longitude (~77° E). Distance on a map doesn't always mean different longitudes — north-south distance doesn't change longitude.

    Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
29. 29.
    Geography

    Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up the recent past due to human activities?

    1. Aral Sea
    2. Black Sea
    3. Lake Baikal

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3
    3. C2 only
    4. D1 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Aral Sea — CORRECT: The Aral Sea (located between Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan) has dramatically shrunk by about 75% in the last 50 years. The main cause was diversion of its feeder rivers (Amu Darya and Syr Darya) for cotton irrigation by the Soviet Union. It went from 68 meters depth in the 1960s to less than 10 meters. This is one of the worst environmental disasters caused by humans.

    2. Black Sea — WRONG: The Black Sea has NOT dried up. It is a large, stable sea bordered by Turkey, Russia, Ukraine, and other countries. It has its own environmental issues (pollution, dead zones) but has not shrunk immensely.

    3. Lake Baikal — WRONG: Lake Baikal in Russia is the world's deepest and oldest freshwater lake. While water levels have fluctuated and gone below critical marks a few times, it has NOT 'shrunk immensely' like the Aral Sea. The fluctuations are relatively minor.

    REMEMBER:

    • Aral Sea = the big shrinkage story (75% gone due to irrigation).
    • Black Sea = stable, not shrinking.
    • Lake Baikal = fluctuating but not dramatically shrunk.

    Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
30. 30.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.
    2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
    3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    All three statements are correct:

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: Most of the world's coral reefs are found in tropical waters. Corals need warm, shallow, clear water with sunlight to survive. They are mostly found between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, in the western parts of the Indian, Pacific, and Atlantic Oceans.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT: More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are in Australian waters. The Great Barrier Reef (off Australia's northeast coast) is the world's largest coral reef system and alone accounts for a huge percentage of global coral reefs. Australia has approximately 17% of the world's coral reefs.

    3. Statement 3 is CORRECT: Australia, Indonesia, and Philippines together account for over 40% of the world's coral reefs:

    • Australia: ~17%
    • Indonesia: ~16%
    • Philippines: ~9%

    Total: ~42% — which is more than one-third.

    REMEMBER: Coral reefs = tropical, warm, shallow waters. Top 3 coral reef countries = Australia (17%), Indonesia (16%), Philippines (9%). Together they have ~42% of world's reefs. Great Barrier Reef (Australia) = world's largest.

    Key learnings →World Physical Geography
31. 31.
    Geography

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Regions sometimes mentioned in news	Country
    1.	Catalonia	Spain
    2.	Crimea	Hungary
    3.	Mindanao	Philippines
    4.	Oromia	Nigeria

    Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. A1, 2 and 3
    2. B3 and 4 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D2 and 4 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

    Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

    Let's check each pair:

    1. Catalonia — Spain: CORRECT. Catalonia is a semi-autonomous region in northeastern Spain. It was in the news in 2017 for holding an independence referendum, which Spain declared illegal.

    2. Crimea — Hungary: WRONG. Crimea is NOT in Hungary. Crimea is a peninsula on the Black Sea that was part of Ukraine. Russia annexed it in 2014, causing an international crisis. It should be matched with Ukraine (or Russia, post-annexation).

    3. Mindanao — Philippines: CORRECT. Mindanao is the second-largest island in the Philippines. It has been in the news for Islamic insurgency (Moro conflict) and the 2017 Marawi siege by ISIS-linked militants.

    4. Oromia — Nigeria: WRONG (based on the question pairing). Oromia is actually in ETHIOPIA, not Nigeria. It's the largest region in Ethiopia, home to the Oromo people. It has been in the news for ethnic protests and clashes.

    REMEMBER:

    • Catalonia = Spain (independence issue).
    • Crimea = Ukraine/Russia (NOT Hungary).
    • Mindanao = Philippines (insurgency).
    • Oromia = Ethiopia (NOT Nigeria).

    For map-based questions, focus on which continent each place is in first.

    Key learnings →World Physical Geography
32. 32.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

    1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
    2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: The value of each MLA's vote varies from state to state.

       The formula is:
       Vote value of 1 MLA = (Total population of the state ÷ Total number of elected MLAs) ÷ 1000
       Since states have different populations and different numbers of MLAs, the vote value changes from state to state.

       For example, UP MLAs have a higher vote value than Goa MLAs because UP has a much larger population.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: Nominated members of either House of Parliament CANNOT vote in the Presidential election.

       Only ELECTED members of Parliament and State Assemblies can vote.

       The electoral college for the President consists of:

       • Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
       • Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
       • Elected members of Delhi and Puducherry Legislative Assemblies

       REMEMBER: Presidential election — only ELECTED members vote (not nominated). MLA vote value varies by state (population-based formula). MPs have equal vote value.

    Key learnings →Executive
33. 33.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
    2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

    Both statements are correct:

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Governor enjoys criminal immunity during his/her term of office.

       No criminal proceedings can be started against a sitting Governor in any court, even for personal acts done before becoming Governor.

       This is similar to the immunity enjoyed by the President of India (Article 361).

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT: The emoluments (salary), allowances, and privileges of the Governor are determined by Parliament through law.

       These cannot be reduced during the Governor's term of office — similar to how a judge's salary cannot be reduced during their tenure.

       This protects the Governor's independence.

    REMEMBER:

    Governor's immunity = no criminal cases during term (like the President).

    Governor's salary = fixed by Parliament, cannot be diminished during the term.

    Both protections ensure the Governor can function without fear or pressure.

    Key learnings →Executive
34. 34.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
    2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: Yes, Parliament can place a law in the Ninth Schedule through a Constitutional Amendment. The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment in 1951, along with Article 31-B. Its original purpose was to protect land reform laws from being struck down by courts for violating fundamental rights.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: This was true earlier, but not anymore. After the landmark I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule AFTER April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) CAN be examined by courts. If such a law violates the 'basic structure' of the Constitution, courts can strike it down. So the Ninth Schedule no longer gives blanket (total) protection.

    REMEMBER:

    Ninth Schedule = originally a 'protective shield' for laws.

    But after Kesavananda Bharati (1973), laws added to it can still be challenged if they violate the basic structure doctrine.

    Think of it as: the shield now has holes.

    Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
35. 35.
    Indian Polity

    Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

    1. AA bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
    2. BA Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
    3. CA Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
    4. DA Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

    Correct Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.

    This is a 'which is NOT correct' question.

    Article 110 of the Constitution defines what a Money Bill is. It must contain ONLY provisions related to:

    • Option A: Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax — YES, this is correct.
    • Option B: Custody of the Consolidated Fund or Contingency Fund — YES, this is correct.
    • Option C: Appropriation of moneys out of the CONTINGENCY Fund — NO, this is WRONG. A Money Bill deals with appropriation of money from the CONSOLIDATED Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund.
    • Option D: Regulation of borrowing of money or giving guarantees by the Government — YES, this is correct.

    The key trick: The question swaps 'Consolidated Fund' with 'Contingency Fund' in Option C.

    Money Bills deal with the Consolidated Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund.

    REMEMBER: Money Bill = Consolidated Fund (not Contingency Fund). Article 110 defines Money Bills. The Contingency Fund is like an emergency fund and doesn't require a Money Bill for withdrawals.

    Key learnings →Legislature
36. 36.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party
    2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
    3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:

       The Swatantra Party did not even exist during the first Lok Sabha (1952).

       It was founded much later in 1959.

       In the first Lok Sabha, Congress won a massive 364 out of 489 seats.

       The second-largest party was the Communist Party of India (CPI) with just 16 seats — not the Swatantra Party.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT:

       The concept of 'Leader of the Opposition' was officially recognised for the first time in 1969.

       Later, in 1977, it was given statutory recognition (meaning it was formally written into law).

    3. Statement 3 is WRONG:

       The minimum requirement is not 75 members.

       The rule is that the leader of the largest opposition party must have at least 1/10th (one-tenth) of the total strength of the House to be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

       In the current Lok Sabha with 545 members, that means at least 55 members — not 75.

    REMEMBER:

    Leader of Opposition → first recognised in 1969, statutory status in 1977.

    Needs 1/10th of total House strength, not 75 seats.

    Key learnings →Legislature
37. 37.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scruitinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

    1. ACommittee on Government Assurances
    2. BCommittee on Subordinate Legislation
    3. CRules Committee
    4. DBusiness Advisory Committee

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

    Correct Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

    The Committee on Subordinate Legislation checks whether the executive (government) is properly using the law-making powers that Parliament has delegated to it.

    What does 'subordinate legislation' mean?

    Sometimes Parliament passes a law but gives the government power to make detailed rules, regulations, or bye-laws under that law.

    The Committee ensures these rules don't exceed the powers granted by Parliament.

    It exists in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Committee on Government Assurances — Checks whether promises made by ministers on the floor of the House are actually fulfilled.
    • Rules Committee — Deals with the rules of procedure and conduct of business in the House.
    • Business Advisory Committee — Decides the timetable/schedule for business in the House (which Bills to discuss and for how long).

    REMEMBER: Subordinate Legislation Committee = watchdog for delegated legislation (rules/regulations made by government).

    Ensures government doesn't exceed the powers Parliament gave it.

    Key learnings →Legislature
38. 38.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly.
    2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Speaker of a State Legislative Assembly must vacate office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. The Speaker also vacates office in two other cases:

    • If he/she resigns (by writing to the Deputy Speaker)
    • If he/she is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of ALL THEN members of the Assembly (note: at least 14 days' advance notice is required for such a resolution)

    1. Statement 2 is WRONG: The Speaker CAN vote in the Legislative Assembly, but only in a very specific situation — when there is a tie (equal votes on both sides). This is called a 'casting vote.' The Speaker does NOT vote in the first instance to maintain impartiality. He/she only steps in to break a tie.

    REMEMBER: Speaker vacates office if: ceases to be member, resigns, or is removed by majority resolution. Speaker votes ONLY in case of a tie (casting vote), not normally.

    Key learnings →Legislature
39. 39.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
    2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
    3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3
    4. D3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:

    You do NOT need to pass the TET (Teacher Eligibility Test) conducted by the State Government specifically.

    The RTE Act says teachers must have minimum qualifications laid down by NCTE (National Council for Teacher Education), an academic authority under the Central Government.

    While TET is important, it is not the State Government but NCTE that sets the eligibility criteria.

    1. Statement 2 is CORRECT:

    The RTE Act (2009) allows existing teachers who were already serving at the time the Act was passed but did not meet the new NCTE qualifications to continue teaching.

    However, they were required to acquire the minimum qualifications within 5 years from the date the Act came into force (i.e., by 2015).

    1. Statement 3 is WRONG:

    The RTE Act applies to children aged 6 to 14 years.

    Providing early childhood care and education to children below 6 years is a Directive Principle of State Policy (under Article 45), not a provision of the RTE Act.

    REMEMBER:

    • RTE Act = ages 6-14 (not below 6).
    • NCTE sets teacher qualifications (not State TET alone).
    • Existing unqualified teachers got 5 years to get qualified.
    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
40. 40.
    Indian Polity

    Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

    Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

    1. AArticle 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
    2. BArticle 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
    3. CArticle 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
    4. DArticle 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

    Correct Answer: (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III

    The Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017). The Court ruled that:

    • Right to Privacy is an intrinsic (built-in) part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21.
    • It is also connected to the freedoms guaranteed under Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A (Article 14 + 42nd Amendment): Article 14 is about equality, and the 42nd Amendment is not specifically about privacy.
    • Option B (Article 17 + DPSPs): Article 17 abolishes untouchability — unrelated to privacy.
    • Option D (Article 24 + 44th Amendment): Article 24 prohibits child labour in factories — unrelated to privacy.

    The key point: The 9-judge bench unanimously declared that privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21. This overruled earlier judgments (M.P. Sharma 1954 and Kharak Singh 1962) that had held otherwise.

    REMEMBER: Right to Privacy = Article 21 + Part III. Puttaswamy case (2017) = 9-judge bench = unanimous decision. Privacy is part of 'life and personal liberty.' This is one of the most important constitutional law judgments for UPSC.

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
41. 41.
    Indian Polity

    Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

    1. AIf there are more laws, there is less liberty.
    2. BIf there are no laws, there is no liberty.
    3. CIf there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
    4. DIf laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

    Correct Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

    This question is about political philosophy — the relationship between law and liberty.

    The correct view is that liberty DEPENDS on law.

    Without laws, there would be chaos — the strong would dominate the weak, and no one would truly be free.

    Laws create a framework within which people can enjoy their freedoms safely.

    Think of it like traffic rules: without traffic laws, everyone would drive however they wanted, leading to accidents and chaos.

    Traffic rules actually ENABLE safe driving (freedom of movement).

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A: 'More laws = less liberty' — Not necessarily true. Good laws protect liberty.
    • Option C: 'Liberty means people must make laws' — This is about democracy, not the law-liberty relationship.
    • Option D: 'Frequent law changes = danger to liberty' — This is too narrow and not the fundamental relationship.

    REMEMBER: No laws = no liberty (anarchy).

    Laws are not the enemy of freedom — they are the foundation of freedom.

    This is the essence of 'Rule of Law' — liberty exists within the framework of law.

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
42. 42.
    Indian Polity

    Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"?

    1. Limitation of Powers
    2. Equality before law
    3. People's responsibility to the Government
    4. Liberty and civil rights

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 and 4 only
    3. C1, 2 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only

    Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

    The main features of the 'Rule of Law' are:

    1. Limitation of Powers — CORRECT: Rule of Law means that even the government's power is limited by law. No one, including the government, is above the law. Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution limit Parliament's law-making power.

    2. Equality before law — CORRECT: Everyone is equal before the law. No person gets special treatment based on their position, wealth, or status. This is enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.

    3. People's responsibility to the Government — WRONG: Rule of Law is about the GOVERNMENT's accountability to the PEOPLE, not the other way around. It protects individuals from arbitrary government action.

    4. Liberty and civil rights — CORRECT: Rule of Law ensures that individuals enjoy liberty and civil rights. The government cannot deprive anyone of life or liberty without following proper legal procedures (Article 21).

    REMEMBER: Rule of Law = (1) Government's power is limited, (2) Everyone is equal before law, (3) Liberty is protected. It's about restraining the GOVERNMENT, not about people's duties to the government.

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
43. 43.
    Indian Polity

    If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution of a particular State, then

    1. Athe Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
    2. Bthe powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
    3. CArticle 19 is suspended in that State.
    4. Dthe President can make laws relating to that State.

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

    Correct Answer: (b) The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

    When President's Rule is imposed under Article 356:

    • Option B is CORRECT: The powers of the state legislature are transferred to Parliament. Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List for that state. This is the key constitutional provision.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A: The State Assembly is NOT automatically dissolved. It is usually kept in 'suspended animation' (frozen, not dissolved). The President CAN dissolve it, but it's not automatic. The Assembly may be revived later.

    • Option C: Article 19 (freedoms like speech, assembly, etc.) is NOT suspended under President's Rule. Article 19 is only suspended during a National Emergency declared on grounds of war or external aggression (Article 352), not during President's Rule.

    • Option D: The PRESIDENT does not personally make laws for the state. It is the PARLIAMENT that exercises the state legislature's powers. The President can also make ordinances when Parliament is not in session.

    REMEMBER: President's Rule (Article 356) → State Assembly suspended (NOT automatically dissolved) + Parliament takes over state's law-making power. Article 19 is NOT suspended (that happens only in National Emergency for war/external aggression).

    Key learnings →Relations Between Pillars
44. 44.
    Indian Economy

    As per the NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households", consider the following statements:

    1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
    2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
    3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from source other than agricultural activities.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A2 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

    Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: Rajasthan had the highest percentage of farming households — 78.4% of all rural households were agricultural. This was followed by Uttar Pradesh (74.8%) and Madhya Pradesh (70.8%). Kerala had the lowest at just 27.3%.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: The question says 'a little over 60%' of agricultural households belong to OBCs — this is an exaggeration. The actual figure was about 45% (not 60%). Around 16% were from Scheduled Castes (SC) and 13% from Scheduled Tribes (ST).

    3. Statement 3 is CORRECT: Kerala is unique — about 61% of its agricultural households actually earned more from non-farming activities than from farming. This makes sense because Kerala's economy relies heavily on remittances (money sent by workers abroad), tourism, and services rather than agriculture.

    REMEMBER:

    • Rajasthan = most agricultural state (78.4%).
    • Kerala = least agricultural (27.3%) and 61% earn more from non-farm work.
    • OBCs = ~45% of agricultural households, NOT 60%.
    Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors
45. 45.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance.

    Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

    1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
    2. Adopting minimum tillage
    3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
    4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
    5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

    Select the correct answre using the code given below:

    1. A1, 3 and 4
    2. B2, 3, 4 and 5
    3. C2, 4 and 5
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 5

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 2, 4 and 5

    Correct Answer: (c) 2, 4 and 5

    Conservation Agriculture has three core principles.

    Let's check which statements match:

    The three principles are:

    1. Minimum mechanical soil disturbance (minimum tillage — don't plough/dig the soil too much)
    2. Permanent organic soil cover (keep crop residues or cover crops on the soil)
    3. Diversification of crop species (rotate different crops, don't grow the same crop repeatedly)

    Now checking the options:

    • Statement 1 (frequent tillage): WRONG — Conservation Agriculture says MINIMUM tillage, not frequent.
    • Statement 2 (avoiding monoculture): CORRECT — Crop diversification means avoiding growing a single crop repeatedly.
    • Statement 3 (removal of crop residues): WRONG — Conservation Agriculture says KEEP crop residues on the soil surface, don't remove them.
    • Statement 4 (minimum soil disturbance): CORRECT — This is the first core principle.
    • Statement 5 (cover crops): CORRECT — Maintaining soil cover with cover crops is the second core principle.

    REMEMBER: Conservation Agriculture = 3 principles: (1) Don't disturb soil (minimum tillage), (2) Keep soil covered (mulch/cover crops), (3) Grow different crops (diversification).

    Think of it as: 'Don't dig, keep covered, rotate crops.'

    Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors
46. 46.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following:

    1. Areca nut
    2. Barley
    3. Coffee
    4. Finger millet
    5. Groundnut
    6. Sesamum
    7. Turmeric

    The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

    1. A1, 2, 3 and 7 only
    2. B2, 4, 5 and 6 only
    3. C1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
    4. D1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (Barley, Finger millet, Groundnut, Sesamum)

    MSP (Minimum Support Price) is the price at which the government buys crops from farmers to protect them from price crashes.

    But MSP is NOT given for ALL crops.

    Crops that get MSP include:

    • paddy
    • wheat
    • jowar
    • bajra
    • maize
    • ragi (finger millet)
    • barley
    • gram
    • tur (arhar)
    • moong
    • urad
    • cotton
    • jute
    • sugarcane
    • copra
    • groundnut
    • sunflower
    • soybean
    • sesamum
    • nigerseed
    • safflower
    • mustard.

    Now checking the options:

    • Areca nut (1): NO MSP — Areca nut (supari) is a plantation crop and does not have MSP.
    • Barley (2): YES, has MSP.
    • Coffee (3): NO MSP — Coffee is a plantation crop and does not have MSP.
    • Finger millet/Ragi (4): YES, has MSP.
    • Groundnut (5): YES, has MSP.
    • Sesamum/Til (6): YES, has MSP.
    • Turmeric (7): NO MSP — Turmeric is a spice and does not have MSP.

    REMEMBER: MSP is mainly for cereals, pulses, oilseeds, and a few commercial crops (cotton, jute, sugarcane, copra).

    Plantation crops (coffee, tea, areca nut) and spices (turmeric, pepper) do NOT get MSP.

    This distinction is frequently tested in UPSC.

    Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors
47. 47.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

    1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
    2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
    3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.

    Which of the statements given above is/are corect?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:

       NPOP (National Programme for Organic Production) is NOT operated under the Ministry of Agriculture.

       It is operated under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

       APEDA (Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority), which functions under the Commerce Ministry, serves as the secretariat for NPOP.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT:

       APEDA (Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority) functions as the Secretariat for implementing NPOP.

       APEDA accredits certification agencies, promotes organic exports, and maintains standards.

    3. Statement 3 is CORRECT:

       Sikkim became India's first fully organic state in 2016.

       All farming in Sikkim is now done without chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

       The state received the Future Policy Award from the UN's Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) for this achievement.

    REMEMBER:

    NPOP = Ministry of COMMERCE (not Agriculture) — this is a common UPSC trick!

    APEDA runs it.

    Sikkim = first fully organic state (2016).

    Also remember: organic farming in India is a cross-ministry topic — Commerce handles exports/standards, Agriculture handles promotion.

    Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors
48. 48.
    Indian Economy

    Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?

    1. AIndian Banks' Association
    2. BNational Securities Depository Limited
    3. CNational Payments Corporation of India
    4. DReserve Bank of India

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) National Payments Corporation of India

    Correct Answer: (c) National Payments Corporation of India

    All ATMs in India are linked through the National Financial Switch (NFS), which is operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Indian Banks' Association (IBA) is a representative body of banks — it doesn't run the ATM network.
    • National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) deals with holding securities (shares, bonds) in electronic form — nothing to do with ATMs.
    • Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank and regulator. While it oversees the payment system, it doesn't directly operate the ATM switching network.

    REMEMBER: NPCI runs NFS (National Financial Switch) = connects all ATMs. NPCI also runs UPI, IMPS, RuPay, and other digital payment systems.

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
49. 49.
    Indian Economy

    Which one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate" sometimes seen in news?

    1. AThe incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank.
    2. BThe amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchaing goods or services.
    3. CThe charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.
    4. DThe incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.

    Correct Answer: (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards.

    MDR (Merchant Discount Rate) is simply a fee that shopkeepers/merchants pay to the bank every time a customer swipes a debit or credit card at their shop.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A says it's an 'incentive given by bank to merchant' — No, it's a charge, not an incentive. The merchant pays the bank, not the other way around.

    • Option B says money is 'paid back to customers' — No, MDR has nothing to do with cashback to customers.

    • Option D says it's a 'Government incentive' — No, the government doesn't pay this. It's a bank service charge.

    Think of it this way: When you swipe your card at a shop, the shop has to pay a small percentage of the transaction to the bank as a processing fee. That fee is the MDR. It is usually shared among the card-issuing bank, the card network (like Visa/Mastercard), and the payment processor.

    REMEMBER: MDR = Merchant pays the bank (not the other way around). It's a fee, not an incentive.

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
50. 50.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:

    1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
    2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:

       Capital infusion into public sector banks by the government has NOT steadily increased over the last decade.

       It has fluctuated based on the financial health of banks and the government's fiscal situation.

       There have been years when infusion decreased or was minimal.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT:

       The merger of SBI's associate banks (like State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur, State Bank of Mysore, etc.) with SBI was done under Section 35 of the State Bank of India Act, 1955.

       This merger (completed in 2017) created a much larger and stronger mega-bank.

       The goal was to achieve economies of scale (lower costs per transaction), reduce overhead, and strengthen the banking system by combining resources.

    REMEMBER:

    SBI associate banks merged under SBI Act 1955, Section 35.

    This created India's largest bank by far.

    Government capital infusion into PSBs has NOT been steadily increasing — it varies year to year.

    Bank mergers are a recurring topic in UPSC current affairs.

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
51. 51.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
    2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT:

       Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank's own capital (its own funds) to its risk-weighted assets.

       Think of it as a safety cushion — the more risky loans a bank gives, the more of its own money it must keep aside.

       This prevents banks from taking too many risks and going bankrupt.

       It is set by the central bank (RBI in India) following Basel norms.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG:

       CAR is decided by central banks and banking regulators (like RBI in India), following international standards called Basel norms (set by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision).

       It is NOT directly determined by the market forces based on lending and borrowing.

       The regulator sets the minimum CAR that all banks must maintain.

    REMEMBER:

    CAR = Bank's own capital ÷ Risk-weighted assets.

    Set by RBI/regulators (not market forces).

    It's a safety buffer to prevent banks from becoming insolvent.

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
52. 52.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
    2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the state Governments.
    3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:

       RBI manages government securities for BOTH the Central Government AND State Governments.

       It is the debt manager for both levels of government, not just the Centre.

       The claim that RBI doesn't manage State Government securities is false.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT:

       Treasury Bills are short-term borrowing instruments issued only by the Central Government (not by State Governments).

       They are sold by RBI on behalf of the government.

       They are available for a minimum amount of Rs. 25,000 and in multiples thereof.

       They come in three tenors: 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days.

    3. Statement 3 is CORRECT:

       Treasury Bills are issued at a discount to their face value.

       For example, you might buy a Rs. 100 treasury bill for Rs. 97.

       When it matures, you get Rs. 100.

       The Rs. 3 difference is your return.

       This is why they are called 'zero coupon securities' — they don't pay any periodic interest; the return comes from the discount.

    REMEMBER:

    RBI manages debt for BOTH Centre and States (Statement 1 wrong).

    Treasury Bills = issued only by Centre (not States), short-term, issued at discount, minimum Rs. 25,000.

    They are like buying something at a lower price and getting the full price back later.

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
53. 53.
    Indian Economy

    India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

    1. AILO
    2. BIMF
    3. CUNCTAD
    4. DWTO

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) WTO

    Correct Answer: (d) WTO

    India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 to comply with its obligations under the WTO (World Trade Organization), specifically under the TRIPS Agreement (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights).

    What is a Geographical Indication (GI)?
    A GI tag identifies a product as originating from a specific region, where a particular quality or reputation is linked to that place.

    Examples:

    • Darjeeling Tea
    • Mysore Silk
    • Basmati Rice
    • Champagne (France)

    Why WTO?
    When India joined the WTO in 1995, it agreed to follow the TRIPS agreement, which requires member countries to protect geographical indications. India passed this law in 1999 to meet that requirement.

    Why not the others?

    • ILO (International Labour Organization) deals with labour issues.
    • IMF (International Monetary Fund) deals with monetary and financial stability.
    • UNCTAD deals with trade and development but doesn't mandate GI protection.

    REMEMBER: GI Act 1999 = India's WTO/TRIPS obligation. First GI tag in India = Darjeeling Tea (2004).

    Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
54. 54.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:

    1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
    2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Both statements are wrong:

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG: India is NOT the third largest manufacturer of silicon wafers for solar panels.

       The solar panel manufacturing process goes:

       • Polysilicon
       • Ingots
       • Wafers
       • Cells
       • Modules (panels).

       India mainly manufactures only cells and modules (the final stages).

       India does NOT produce polysilicon, ingots, or wafers — these are mostly made in China, USA, and South Korea.

       So India is far from being a top manufacturer of the complete supply chain.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: Solar power tariffs in India are NOT determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI).

       SECI is a government body that facilitates solar projects and conducts auctions, but it does not set tariffs.

       Solar tariffs are determined either through regulations of the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) or State Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs), or through competitive bidding (auctions) where companies bid the lowest price.

       SECI conducts these auctions but does not decide the tariff itself.

    REMEMBER: India only makes solar cells and modules (not wafers or polysilicon).

    Solar tariffs are set by CERC/SERCs or through competitive bidding — NOT by SECI.

    SECI facilitates auctions but doesn't determine tariffs.

    Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
55. 55.
    Indian Economy

    Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

    1. Aweak administrative machinery
    2. Billiteracy
    3. Chigh population density
    4. Dhigh capital-output ratio

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) high capital-output ratio

    Correct Answer: (d) High capital-output ratio

    This is an important economics concept:

    Capital-output ratio measures how much capital (investment) is needed to produce one unit of output.

    A HIGH capital-output ratio means you need a LOT of investment to produce even a little output — which is very inefficient.

    So even if a country saves a lot of money (high saving), if the capital-output ratio is high, all that investment produces very little additional output.

    The savings are being used inefficiently.

    Example:

    If a country invests Rs. 5 crore but only produces Rs. 1 crore of additional output (ratio = 5:1), that's a high capital-output ratio.

    Compare this with Rs. 2 crore investment producing Rs. 1 crore of output (ratio = 2:1) — much better!

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Weak administration, illiteracy, and high population density can all affect growth, but the most direct reason why high savings don't translate to high output is the efficiency of investment, measured by the capital-output ratio.

    REMEMBER:

    High savings + High capital-output ratio = Low output growth.

    Capital-output ratio = how efficiently investment is converted into production.

    Lower ratio = better efficiency.

    Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
56. 56.
    Indian Economy

    Increase is absolute and per capital real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

    1. Aindustrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
    2. Bagricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
    3. Cpoverty and unemployment increase.
    4. Dimports grow faster than exports.

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) poverty and unemployment increase.

    Correct Answer: (c) Poverty and unemployment increase.

    The question asks: When does an increase in total and per capita GNP NOT mean higher economic development?

    The answer is: when poverty and unemployment increase alongside rising GNP.

    Why? GNP (Gross National Product) measures the total economic output, and per capita GNP divides it by population. But these numbers can go up even if the benefits are concentrated among a few rich people while the majority remains poor and jobless.

    Example: If a country's GNP doubles but all the growth goes to the top 1%, while poverty and unemployment increase for the rest, can we call it 'economic development'? No! Development means the majority should benefit.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Options A and B (agricultural vs industrial imbalance): These are structural issues but don't directly negate economic development.
    • Option D (imports growing faster than exports): This creates trade deficit issues but doesn't mean poverty is increasing.

    REMEMBER: Rising GNP ≠ Development if the benefits don't reach the common people.

    True development = growth + reduction in poverty and unemployment.

    This is the key difference between 'economic growth' and 'economic development.'

    Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
57. 57.
    Indian Economy

    If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

    1. Athe opportunity cost is zero.
    2. Bthe opportunity cost is ignored.
    3. Cthe opportunity costs is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
    4. Dthe opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) the opportunity costs is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

    Correct Answer: (c) The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.

    This is an economics concept question. Let's break it down simply:

    Nothing is truly 'free.' When the government provides something for free, it still costs money to produce. That cost is paid through tax revenue — meaning taxpayers bear the cost.

    • Before the freebie: The consumer pays the cost (opportunity cost is on the consumer).
    • After the government makes it free: The taxpayer pays the cost (opportunity cost shifts to the tax-paying public).

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A: 'Opportunity cost is zero' — Wrong! The cost doesn't disappear; someone still pays for it.
    • Option B: 'Opportunity cost is ignored' — The cost isn't ignored; it's transferred.
    • Option D: 'Cost transferred to the Government' — Technically, the government uses taxpayers' money, so the cost is ultimately borne by the tax-paying public, not the government itself.

    REMEMBER: There's no such thing as a free lunch. When government gives something for free, the cost shifts from consumers to taxpayers. The opportunity cost doesn't vanish — it just moves.

    Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
58. 58.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

    1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
    2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
    3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
    4. accumulation of intangible wealth.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 4
    4. D1, 3 and 4

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 2 and 4

    Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 4

    Human capital formation means investing in people to make them more productive and skilled.

    Let's evaluate each statement:

    1. 'Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital' — WRONG: This describes financial capital accumulation, not human capital formation. Human capital is about people's skills, not their bank balance.

    2. 'Increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people' — CORRECT: This is the core definition of human capital formation. It includes education, training, skill development, and health improvements.

    3. 'Accumulation of tangible wealth' — WRONG: Tangible (physical) wealth like buildings, machines, and land is physical capital, not human capital.

    4. 'Acquiring the ability to work for the economic and social development' — CORRECT: Human capital formation ultimately enables people to contribute productively to the country's economic and social development.

    REMEMBER:

    Human Capital = investment in PEOPLE (education, health, skills).

    Physical Capital = investment in THINGS (machines, buildings).

    Human capital formation = making people more skilled and productive, not making them richer.

    Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
59. 59.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

    1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidies food grains.
    2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
    3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3
    4. D3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG: The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 does NOT limit coverage to only 'below poverty line (BPL)' families. It provides subsidized foodgrains to a much wider population:

    • Up to 75% of the rural population
    • Up to 50% of the urban population

    This covers about two-thirds of India's total population, far more than just BPL families. The Act categorizes eligible households into Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) and Priority Households.

    1. Statement 2 is CORRECT: The Act says the eldest woman of the household (aged 18 years or above) shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards. This was a progressive step to empower women.

    2. Statement 3 is WRONG: Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a free meal (not 'take-home ration of 1600 calories'). They also get maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000. The specific calorie figure mentioned in the statement is misleading.

    REMEMBER: NFSA covers ~67% of India's population (not just BPL). Eldest WOMAN (18+) = head of household for ration cards. Pregnant/lactating mothers get free meals + Rs. 6,000 maternity benefit.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
60. 60.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:

    1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labor and Employment.
    2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
    3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:

       PMKVY is NOT under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

       It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

       This ministry was specifically created in 2014 to handle skill development.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT:

       PMKVY is designed for school/college dropouts and unemployed youth.

       The short-term training component benefits Indian nationals who have dropped out of formal education or are unemployed, helping them gain industry-relevant skills.

    3. Statement 3 is CORRECT:

       Under PMKVY, the training and assessment fees are entirely paid by the government.

       Candidates do not have to pay anything.

       After successful completion and certification, they also receive monetary rewards.

    REMEMBER:

    PMKVY = Ministry of SKILL Development (not Labour).

    Free training for dropouts/unemployed youth.

    Government pays all fees + gives monetary rewards after certification.

    Common UPSC trick: confusing the ministry (Skill Development vs Labour).

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
61. 61.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

    1. BHIM app allows the user to tranfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
    2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT:

       BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) app allows you to transfer money to anyone who has a UPI-enabled bank account.

       You can send money using their UPI ID (like name@bankname) or by scanning their QR code.

       You can also request money from others.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG:

       While BHIM facilitates transactions using UPI, it does NOT require the recipient to have the BHIM app installed.

       The recipient just needs any UPI-enabled bank account — they could be using Google Pay, PhonePe, Paytm, or any other UPI app, or even just their bank's own app.

       BHIM is just one of many UPI apps.

    REMEMBER:

    BHIM = a UPI-based payment app.

    Works with ANY UPI-enabled account (recipient doesn't need BHIM specifically).

    UPI ID or QR code are enough to transfer money.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
62. 62.
    Indian Economy

    Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India?

    1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did.
    2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
    3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centers.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 3 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 3 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:

       Digital India's aim is NOT to create Indian versions of Chinese internet companies like China's Great Firewall or Alibaba.

       That's not the goal at all.

       Digital India is about providing digital infrastructure and services to citizens.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG:

       Digital India does NOT aim to establish a National e-Governance Plan.

       Actually, the National e-Governance Plan already existed before Digital India.

       Digital India is broader — it aims for digital infrastructure, digital delivery of services, and digital literacy.

    3. Statement 3 is CORRECT:

       Digital India aims to build a National Information Infrastructure (NII) that would make high-speed internet available in all gram panchayats (villages).

       The goal is to connect all parts of India digitally so that government services can reach every citizen electronically.

    REMEMBER:

    Digital India = digital infrastructure + digital services + digital literacy.

    It's about connecting villages to the internet, NOT about creating Indian tech giants or copying China.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
63. 63.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
    2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Both statements are wrong:

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG: Aadhaar is NOT a proof of citizenship or domicile. The Aadhaar Act, 2016 clearly states this. Aadhaar is merely a proof of identity — it proves 'you are who you say you are,' not that you are an Indian citizen. Even non-citizens residing in India can get Aadhaar.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: Aadhaar numbers CAN be deactivated or omitted. The UIDAI (Unique Identification Authority of India) has the power to:

    • Temporarily deactivate an Aadhaar number
    • Permanently omit (cancel) an Aadhaar number

    This can happen for various reasons like fraud or duplicate entries.

    REMEMBER: Aadhaar = proof of IDENTITY only, NOT citizenship. Aadhaar CAN be deactivated/cancelled by UIDAI.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
64. 64.
    Indian Economy

    The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply?

    1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
    2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

    Both statements are correct:

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: Aadhaar provides open APIs (Application Programming Interfaces), which means any electronic device or system — whether ATMs, mobile phones, computers, or biometric scanners — can connect to and use Aadhaar's verification services. Think of an API as a universal plug that lets different devices talk to the Aadhaar system.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT: Aadhaar Authentication works by sending a person's Aadhaar number along with their details (like fingerprint or iris scan) to the central database (called CIDR — Central Identities Data Repository). The database then checks if the information matches and sends back a simple 'Yes' or 'No' — it does not reveal any personal data. This makes it useful for verifying identity for services like banking, ration distribution, etc.

    REMEMBER: Aadhaar APIs = can be used by any electronic system (open). Authentication = only gives Yes/No response, doesn't share personal data.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
65. 65.
    Indian Economy

    Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?

    1. AThe money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
    2. BThe money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
    3. CThe bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange etc.
    4. DThe metallic money in circulation in a country

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims

    Correct Answer: (b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims.

    Legal tender is money that is legally recognized and MUST be accepted as payment for debts.

    If someone offers you legal tender to settle a debt, you are legally obligated to accept it.

    You cannot refuse it.

    In India, legal tender is:

    • Coins issued by the Government of India
    • Banknotes issued by the Reserve Bank of India

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A: 'Money tendered in courts' — Legal tender has nothing to do with court fees specifically.
    • Option C: 'Bank money like cheques, drafts' — Cheques and drafts are NOT legal tender. A shopkeeper can refuse a cheque, but cannot refuse cash (legal tender).
    • Option D: 'Metallic money' — While coins are legal tender, the definition is broader than just metallic money.

    REMEMBER: Legal tender = money that MUST be accepted by law for settling debts.

    Coins + RBI Notes = legal tender.

    Cheques, drafts, digital payments = NOT legal tender (they can be refused).

    Key learnings →Money, Inflation, and Monetary Policy
66. 66.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
    2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements".

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Both statements are wrong. Here's why:

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG: The Equalisation Levy was NOT introduced as part of the Income Tax Act. It was introduced as a separate provision under the Finance Act, 2016. This distinction matters a lot (see Statement 2).

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: Because the levy is NOT part of the Income Tax Act, foreign companies CANNOT claim tax credit in their home countries under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs). DTAAs only cover taxes that fall under the Income Tax Act. Since Equalisation Levy is a separate legislation, it falls outside DTAA coverage.

    What is Equalisation Levy? It's a 6% tax on payments made by Indian businesses to foreign companies for online advertisement services. It was designed to tax digital transactions where foreign tech giants (like Google, Facebook) earn money from India but don't have a physical presence here.

    REMEMBER: Equalisation Levy is deliberately kept OUTSIDE the Income Tax Act. This means: no DTAA tax credit for foreign companies. The two statements are connected — Statement 1 being wrong is the REASON Statement 2 is also wrong.

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
67. 67.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following items:

    1. Cereals grains hulled
    2. Chicken eggs cooked
    3. Fish processed and canned
    4. Newspapers containing advertising material

    Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1, 2 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only (Cereals grains hulled)

    This question is tricky because of the words 'cooked,' 'processed,' and 'advertising material':

    1. Cereals grains hulled — EXEMPT from GST: Basic food grains (rice, wheat, etc.) that are simply hulled (outer shell removed) are considered essential food items and are exempt from GST (0% rate).

    2. Chicken eggs cooked — NOT EXEMPT: While raw eggs are exempt from GST, COOKED eggs (like boiled eggs in a restaurant or packaged cooked eggs) attract GST because they involve processing or restaurant service.

    3. Fish processed and canned — NOT EXEMPT: While fresh fish is exempt from GST, PROCESSED and CANNED fish attracts GST because processing and packaging add value and make it a manufactured product.

    4. Newspapers containing advertising material — NOT EXEMPT: Regular newspapers are exempt from GST, but newspapers that primarily contain advertising material are treated differently and may attract GST.

    The key lesson: The basic/raw form of food items (grains, eggs, fish) is often exempt from GST, but once they are COOKED, PROCESSED, CANNED, or otherwise modified, they usually attract GST.

    REMEMBER: Under GST, raw/basic food = often exempt. Processed/cooked/canned food = usually taxed. The question tests whether you notice the words 'cooked,' 'processed,' and 'advertising' — these change the GST status.

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
68. 68.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.

    2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.

    3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government's consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

    Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: The FRBM Review Committee (headed by N.K. Singh) recommended:

    • Total debt-to-GDP ratio: 60% for combined government
    • Centre's share: 40%
    • States' share: 20%
    • Target year: 2023

    These numbers are important to remember.

    1. Statement 2 is WRONG: The figures in the statement are swapped/incorrect. In reality, the Centre's domestic liabilities were about 46% of GDP, while States' liabilities were about 23% of GDP. The statement claims Centre has only 21% and States have 49% — this is the opposite of reality.

    2. Statement 3 is CORRECT: Under Article 293(3) of the Constitution, if a state has any outstanding loans from the Central Government, it must get the Centre's prior approval before borrowing more money. This gives the Centre some control over state borrowing.

    REMEMBER: FRBM debt target = 60% total (40% Centre + 20% States). Article 293(3) = States need Centre's permission to borrow if they already owe money to the Centre.

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
69. 69.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
    2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: India imports more edible oil than it produces domestically.

       India produces only about 40% of its edible oil needs and imports the remaining 60%.

       This heavy dependence on imports has been a long-standing issue.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: The government DOES impose customs duty on imported edible oils.

       This is done to protect Indian farmers and the domestic oil-crushing industry.

       For example, crude soyabean oil attracts 30% duty, while crude sunflower and mustard oils attract 25% duty.

       So there is no 'exemption' — it's the opposite.

    REMEMBER: India imports ~60% of its edible oil (more than it produces).

    Government charges customs duty on edible oil imports to protect local industry.

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
70. 70.
    Environment

    In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

    1. AArunachal Pradesh
    2. BManipur
    3. CMeghalaya
    4. DNagaland

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Arunachal Pradesh

    Correct Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh

    Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary (also known as Pakke Tiger Reserve) is located in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh.

    Key facts:

    • It covers over 860 sq km of area.
    • It is bounded by the Kameng River and Pakke River.
    • It is a dedicated Tiger Reserve.
    • It is home to species like tigers, elephants, hornbills, and the rare clouded leopard.
    • The Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival is celebrated here to promote hornbill conservation.

    Why not the others?

    • Manipur — Has Keibul Lamjao National Park (only floating national park in the world).
    • Meghalaya — Has Nongkhyllem and Balpakram National Parks.
    • Nagaland — Has Intanki National Park.

    REMEMBER: Pakhui/Pakke = Arunachal Pradesh = Tiger Reserve = East Kameng district. The 'Pakke' name can help you remember — 'Pakke' sounds distinctive for Arunachal Pradesh. Also remember the Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival.

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
71. 71.
    Environment

    The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

    1. AWidespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
    2. BFears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near future in the mannere it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
    3. CLarge scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food biodiversity.
    4. DMankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, framentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, framentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

    Correct Answer: (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.

    The 'Sixth Mass Extinction' (also called the Holocene Extinction) refers to the ongoing, widespread extinction of species caused primarily by HUMAN activities.

    Scientists believe we are currently living through the sixth major mass extinction event in Earth's history.

    The main human causes include:

    • Habitat destruction and fragmentation (deforestation, urbanization)
    • Over-exploitation of resources (overhunting, overfishing)
    • Pollution (air, water, plastic, chemicals)
    • Climate change (global warming)
    • Invasive species (introduced by humans)

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A talks about monoculture and chemical use — these are problems, but too narrow to describe the entire sixth extinction.
    • Option B talks about a meteorite collision — that caused the FIFTH mass extinction (which killed dinosaurs 65 million years ago), not the sixth.
    • Option C talks about GM crops — this is a specific concern, not the broad cause of mass extinction.

    REMEMBER:
    5th extinction = meteorite killed dinosaurs (65 million years ago).
    6th extinction = HUMANS are the cause (happening NOW).
    Key causes: habitat loss, pollution, climate change, overexploitation.

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
72. 72.
    Environment

    Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

    1. AIts extract is widely used in cosmetics.
    2. BIt tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
    3. CIts extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
    4. DNone of these

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

    Correct Answer: (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.

    Prosopis juliflora is an INVASIVE species — one of the worst in India. Here's why it makes news:

    • It was originally brought to India from South and Central America to provide fuel wood for rural communities and to restore degraded/barren lands.
    • BUT it spread uncontrollably and became a major problem. It grows aggressively, takes over large areas, and chokes out native plants.
    • It reduces biodiversity by outcompeting local plant species for water, sunlight, and nutrients.
    • It threatens local ecosystems, agricultural lands, and pasture lands.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A: Its extract is NOT widely used in cosmetics.
    • Option C: Its extract is NOT used for making pesticides.

    REMEMBER: Prosopis juliflora = invasive species = reduces biodiversity. Brought to India with good intentions (fuel wood, land restoration) but became a menace. It's a classic example of how introducing a foreign species can backfire. UPSC loves questions about invasive species!

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
73. 73.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
    2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
    3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: The term 'Critical Wildlife Habitat' is defined in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 — commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA). This is the only law that defines this term. A Critical Wildlife Habitat is an area within a National Park or Sanctuary that is required for wildlife conservation and where the rights of forest dwellers may be restricted.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT: The Forest Rights Act, 2006 gave forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes the right to own land that they had been cultivating (up to a maximum of 4 hectares per family). For the first time, the law recognized the rights of tribal communities who had been living in forests for generations but had no legal ownership.

    3. Statement 3 is WRONG: The specific claim in Statement 3 is incorrect based on the provisions of the Forest Rights Act.

    REMEMBER:

    • Forest Rights Act (FRA) 2006 = defined 'Critical Wildlife Habitat' + gave land ownership rights to forest-dwelling tribals.
    • Maximum land = 4 hectares per family.
    • FRA tried to balance wildlife conservation with tribal rights — a very important Act for both Environment and Polity sections in UPSC.
    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
74. 74.
    Environment

    Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?

    1. AIncreased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    2. BIncreased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    3. CIncreased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
    4. DAdaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

    Correct Answer: (a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

    Carbon fertilization is a simple concept:

    Plants use carbon dioxide (CO2) during photosynthesis to make food and grow.

    So when there's MORE CO2 in the atmosphere, plants can potentially grow FASTER and BIGGER — just like giving extra fertilizer to crops.

    Think of it this way: CO2 is like food for plants.

    More food = more growth.

    This effect is called 'carbon fertilization.'

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option B describes the greenhouse effect (global warming), not carbon fertilization.
    • Option C describes ocean acidification (CO2 dissolving in oceans makes them more acidic), not carbon fertilization.
    • Option D describes climate adaptation, which is a completely different concept.

    Important note: While carbon fertilization sounds positive, it has limits. Beyond a certain point, other factors like water, nutrients, and temperature become limiting. Also, increased CO2 causes global warming, which can harm plants in other ways.

    REMEMBER: Carbon fertilization = MORE CO2 → MORE plant growth (through enhanced photosynthesis).

    Don't confuse with greenhouse effect (warming) or ocean acidification (acidic oceans).

    Key learnings →Climate Change
75. 75.
    Environment

    The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

    1. AThe Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
    2. BThe United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
    3. CThe United Nations Framework Convention on Climate change 2015, Paris
    4. DThe World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

    Correct Answer: (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

    PAGE (Partnership for Action on Green Economy) emerged as a response to the outcomes of Rio+20 — the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 2012.

    Key facts about PAGE:

    • It was officially launched in 2013, following the call at Rio+20 to help countries transition to greener, more inclusive economies.
    • It is a joint initiative of 5 UN agencies: UNEP, ILO, UNIDO, UNITAR, and UNDP.
    • It helps countries redesign their economic policies to promote sustainability.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A (Johannesburg 2002): The Earth Summit 2002 focused on sustainable development but PAGE came much later.
    • Option C (Paris 2015): The Paris Climate Agreement was about climate change targets, not specifically about green economy transitions.
    • Option D (New Delhi 2016): This summit came after PAGE was already launched.

    REMEMBER: PAGE = Rio+20 (2012). Think 'PAGE was born in Rio.' It's a partnership of 5 UN agencies to help countries go green economically.

    Key learnings →Climate Change
76. 76.
    Environment

    "Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by

    1. AThe Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
    2. BThe UNEP Secretariat
    3. CThe UNFCCC Secretariat
    4. DThe World Meteorological Organization

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) The UNFCCC Secretariat

    Correct Answer: (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat

    'Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now' is an initiative launched by the UNFCCC Secretariat (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change Secretariat).

    Key facts:

    • 'Climate Neutral Now' was launched by the UNFCCC Secretariat in 2015.
    • It was later brought under the larger 'Momentum for Change' umbrella in 2016.
    • The initiative encourages organizations and individuals to measure their climate footprint, reduce emissions as much as possible, and offset remaining emissions.
    • 'Momentum for Change' showcases innovative climate action examples from around the world.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) — Produces scientific assessment reports on climate change, doesn't run this initiative.
    • UNEP Secretariat — Handles broader environmental issues, not this specific initiative.
    • World Meteorological Organization (WMO) — Deals with weather, climate science, and water resources, not this programme.

    REMEMBER: 'Climate Neutral Now' = UNFCCC Secretariat. Think 'Climate Neutral → Climate Convention → UNFCCC.' Don't confuse UNFCCC (policy/convention body) with IPCC (scientific body).

    Key learnings →Climate Change
77. 77.
    Environment

    Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

    1. Hard and waxy leaves
    2. Tiny leaves
    3. Thorns instead of leaves

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A2 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    All three are correct.

    Desert plants (called xerophytes) use various tricks to save water:

    1. Hard and waxy leaves — CORRECT: A thick, waxy coating (called cuticle) on leaves prevents water from evaporating. Think of it like wrapping food in plastic to keep it fresh.

    2. Tiny leaves — CORRECT: Smaller leaves = less surface area = less water loss through evaporation. Some desert plants have needle-like leaves for this reason.

    3. Thorns instead of leaves — CORRECT: Some plants like cactus have completely replaced their leaves with thorns. No leaves means almost no water loss through transpiration (the process by which plants lose water through tiny pores on leaves).

    REMEMBER: Desert plants fight water loss in 3 ways — wax coating (hard/waxy leaves), shrink leaves (tiny), or ditch leaves entirely (thorns). All three are valid adaptations.

    Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
78. 78.
    Environment

    With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit help in Paris in 2015.
    2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
    3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:
       GACSA was NOT an outcome of the UN Climate Summit 2009 in Copenhagen.
       It was launched in September 2014 at the UN Climate Summit in New York.
       The term 'Climate-Smart Agriculture' was first coined by FAO in 2010.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT:
       GACSA is a voluntary, inclusive, multi-stakeholder platform.
       This means it brings together governments, farmers' organizations, research institutions, civil society, and the private sector — all on a voluntary basis.
       No one is forced to join.

    3. Statement 3 is WRONG:
       India is NOT a member of GACSA.
       India has stayed away, mainly due to concerns that the alliance could be used to promote corporate interests in agriculture and genetically modified crops.

    REMEMBER:
    GACSA = launched 2014 (not 2009 Copenhagen).
    It's voluntary and multi-stakeholder.
    India is NOT a member.
    'Climate-Smart Agriculture' was coined by FAO in 2010.

    Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
79. 79.
    Environment

    With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

    1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
    2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
    3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 3 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 3 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:

       High organic matter in soil actually INCREASES water-holding capacity, not reduces it.

       Organic matter acts like a sponge — it can absorb and hold water.

       Soils rich in organic matter (like black soil/humus-rich soil) hold more moisture than sandy or organic-poor soils.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG:

       Soil DOES play an important role in the sulphur cycle.

       Sulphur is one of the nutrients cycled between the atmosphere, soil, and living organisms.

       Sulphur is released into soil through weathering of rocks and minerals.

       Plants and microbes take up sulphate from the soil and convert it into organic compounds.

       When organisms die and decompose, sulphur returns to the soil.

       So soil is a key component of the sulphur cycle, not separate from it.

    3. Statement 3 is CORRECT:

       Irrigation over a long period can lead to salinization of agricultural land.

       When water is applied through irrigation, it brings dissolved salts.

       As water evaporates, these salts accumulate in the topsoil.

       Without proper drainage to wash away excess salts, the soil becomes increasingly saline over time, reducing crop productivity.

       This is called secondary salinization and is a major problem in irrigated farmlands across India and the world.

    REMEMBER:

    Organic matter INCREASES water retention (Statement 1 is opposite).

    Soil IS part of the sulphur cycle (Statement 2 is wrong).

    Irrigation CAN cause salinization if drainage is poor (Statement 3 is correct).

    Answer = only Statement 3 is correct.

    Key learnings →Other Environmental Issues
80. 80.
    Environment

    How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

    1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
    2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG: Both the NGT and CPCB were established by Acts of Parliament — not by executive orders.

    • NGT was set up by the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
    • CPCB was set up by the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
      So the statement that CPCB was created by 'executive order' is false.

    1. Statement 2 is CORRECT: This correctly describes the different roles of both bodies:

    • NGT acts like a court for environmental cases. It provides speedy environmental justice and reduces the burden on High Courts and Supreme Court.
    • CPCB is a technical/regulatory body. Its job is to promote cleanliness of rivers and wells, and to improve air quality in the country.

    REMEMBER: Both NGT and CPCB are statutory bodies (created by law).
    NGT = environmental court (justice).
    CPCB = pollution regulator (technical monitoring).
    The trick in this question is Statement 1 — CPCB is NOT created by executive order.

    Key learnings →Pollution
81. 81.
    Environment

    Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in river beds?

    1. Decreased salinity in the river
    2. Pollution of groundwater
    3. Lowering of the water-table

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

    1. Decreased salinity in the river — WRONG: Heavy sand mining actually INCREASES salinity, not decreases it. When sand is removed from riverbeds, the river becomes deeper. This allows saltwater from the sea to intrude further inland (especially in coastal rivers), increasing salinity. Think of it this way: sand acts as a natural barrier — remove it, and saltwater creeps in.

    2. Pollution of groundwater — CORRECT: Sand mining deepens the riverbed, which lowers the water table. This can expose groundwater to pollutants and contamination. Also, the removal of sand (which acts as a natural filter) reduces the filtration of water seeping into the ground.

    3. Deepening of the river bed — CORRECT: This is the most direct and obvious effect. When you remove sand from a riverbed, the bed gets deeper. This deepening can lead to bank erosion (riverbanks collapse), bridge foundations getting exposed, and damage to nearby infrastructure.

    REMEMBER: Sand mining effects: river gets DEEPER (bed deepens) → banks erode → saltwater intrudes (salinity INCREASES, not decreases) → groundwater gets polluted. The trick in this question is Statement 1 — salinity increases, not decreases.

    Key learnings →Pollution
82. 82.
    Science and Technology

    With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

    1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
    2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
    3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

    1. Statement 1 is WRONG:
       GM mustard does NOT have genes from a mustard plant.
       It uses genes from a SOIL BACTERIUM (Bacillus amyloliquefaciens).
       These bacterial genes help the mustard plant produce hybrid seeds more efficiently than traditional methods.

    2. Statement 2 is CORRECT:
       GM mustard uses the barnase-barstar gene system from soil bacteria.
       The barnase gene makes one parent line male-sterile (cannot produce pollen),
       and the barstar gene in the other parent line restores fertility.
       This makes hybridization (cross-breeding) easier and more efficient.

    3. Statement 3 is WRONG:
       GM mustard was NOT developed by a private company.
       It was developed by the Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants at Delhi University,
       led by Professor Deepak Pental.
       It is a publicly funded research effort, not a private sector product.

    REMEMBER:
    GM Mustard = genes from soil BACTERIA (not another mustard plant).
    Developed by DELHI UNIVERSITY (public institution, not private).
    Uses barnase-barstar system for better hybridization.

    Key learnings →Biotechnology
83. 83.
    Science and Technology

    What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?

    1. AAn Israeli radar system
    2. BIndia's indigenous anti-missile programme
    3. CAn American anti-missile system
    4. DA defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) An American anti-missile system

    Correct Answer: (c) An American anti-missile system

    THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defence) is a missile defence system developed by the United States.

    Its purpose is to intercept and destroy short-range and medium-range ballistic missiles during their final phase of flight (called the 'terminal phase' — when the missile is coming down toward its target).

    THAAD was frequently in the news because the US deployed it in South Korea in 2017, which caused tension with China.

    China objected because THAAD's powerful radar could potentially monitor Chinese territory.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Option A: It's American, not Israeli. (Israel has its own system called Iron Dome.)
    • Option B: It's not India's indigenous programme. (India has its own called the Advanced Air Defence / Prithvi Air Defence.)
    • Option D: It's not a Japan-South Korea collaboration. It's purely American.

    REMEMBER: THAAD = American anti-missile system. Deployed in South Korea. Intercepts missiles in the 'terminal phase' (hence the name). China opposed its deployment in South Korea.

    Key learnings →Defence
84. 84.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
    2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA), 2006 replaced multiple older laws including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 and several other food-related orders.

       It created a single unified framework for food safety in India.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) does NOT function under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare — wait, actually let me clarify.

       The FSSAI was originally under the Ministry of Health, but the statement says it functions under the Ministry of Agriculture.

       That is incorrect. FSSAI works under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, not Agriculture.

       The question's trick is about which ministry FSSAI falls under.

    REMEMBER: FSSA 2006 replaced the old Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. FSSAI operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (not Agriculture).

    Key learnings →Health
85. 85.
    Science and Technology

    "3D printing" has applications in which of the following?

    1. Preparation of confectionery items
    2. Manufacture of bionic ears
    3. Automotive industry
    4. Reconstructive surgeries
    5. Data processing technologies

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1, 3 and 4 only
    2. B2, 3 and 5 only
    3. C1 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

    ALL five areas use 3D printing technology:

    1. Confectionery items — YES: 3D printers can create chocolates, candies, and decorative food items in custom shapes. Companies like Hershey's have experimented with this.

    2. Bionic ears — YES: Researchers at Princeton University created a 3D-printed bionic ear that can hear frequencies beyond normal human hearing. 3D printing is widely used in medical prosthetics.

    3. Automotive industry — YES: Car manufacturers use 3D printing for prototyping parts, custom components, and even entire car bodies. Companies like BMW, Audi, and Local Motors use this technology.

    4. Reconstructing fossils — YES: Paleontologists use 3D printing to create replicas of fragile fossils for study and display without risking damage to the originals.

    5. Replication of tissues and organs — YES: Bio-printing is a cutting-edge application where living cells are used as 'ink' to print tissue structures. Scientists have successfully printed skin, cartilage, and simple organ structures.

    REMEMBER: 3D printing is used in almost EVERY field — food, medicine, automobiles, science, art, construction, aerospace. If a UPSC question asks 'which fields use 3D printing,' the answer is almost always 'ALL of the above.' It's a versatile technology.

    Key learnings →Health
86. 86.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following

    1. Birds
    2. Dust blowing
    3. Rain
    4. Wind blowing

    Which of the above spread plant diseases?

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B3 and 4 only
    3. C1, 2 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    ALL four agents can spread plant diseases:

    1. Birds — YES: Birds can carry disease-causing organisms (pathogens) on their feathers, feet, or beaks. As they move from plant to plant or field to field, they transfer these pathogens.

    2. Dust blowing — YES: Wind-blown dust particles can carry fungal spores, bacteria, and other pathogens over long distances. Dust storms can spread plant diseases across entire regions.

    3. Rain — YES: Rain spreads plant diseases in several ways:

       • Rain splash: Droplets hitting an infected plant can splash pathogens onto nearby healthy plants.
       • Rainwater runoff: Water flowing through fields can wash disease agents from one area to another.

    4. Wind blowing — YES: Wind is one of the most important carriers of plant diseases. It carries fungal spores, bacteria, and even small insects (which may carry viruses) over large distances. Many major crop diseases spread through wind-borne spores.

    REMEMBER: Plant diseases spread through basically everything in nature — birds, dust, rain, wind, insects, contaminated soil, infected seeds, and even humans (through tools and equipment). When UPSC asks 'which spread plant diseases,' the answer is usually ALL OF THE ABOVE.

    Key learnings →Health
87. 87.
    Science and Technology

    The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

    1. AExoplanets
    2. BCryptocurrency
    3. CCyber attacks
    4. DMini satellites

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Cyber attacks

    Correct Answer: (c) Cyber attacks

    WannaCry, Petya, and EternalBlue are all related to cyber attacks:

    • WannaCry: A massive ransomware attack in May 2017 that affected computers in over 150 countries. It encrypted people's files and demanded ransom in Bitcoin to unlock them. It mainly targeted computers running Microsoft Windows.

    • EternalBlue: A hacking tool/exploit originally developed by the US National Security Agency (NSA). It was leaked by a hacker group and was the vulnerability that WannaCry used to spread from computer to computer.

    • Petya (also called NotPetya): Another ransomware attack in June 2017 that also used the EternalBlue exploit. It initially targeted Ukraine but spread globally.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Exoplanets = planets outside our solar system.

    • Cryptocurrency = digital currencies like Bitcoin.

    • Mini satellites = small satellites used for research.

    REMEMBER: WannaCry and Petya = ransomware attacks. EternalBlue = the exploit/vulnerability they used. All three = cyber attacks in 2017. Ransomware = hackers lock your files and demand money to unlock them.

    Key learnings →IT & Computing
88. 88.
    Science and Technology

    When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?

    1. ABorder Gateway Protocol
    2. BInternet of Things
    3. CInternet Protocol
    4. DVirtual Private Network

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Internet of Things

    Correct Answer: (b) Internet of Things (IoT)

    The scenario described — your phone alarm triggers the geyser, which connects to your coffee machine, which sends notifications — is a classic example of the Internet of Things (IoT).

    IoT means everyday physical objects (devices, appliances, vehicles) are connected to the internet and can communicate with each other WITHOUT human intervention. They collect and share data automatically.

    In the question's example:

    Phone → Geyser → Coffee machine → Phone notification.

    All devices 'talk' to each other through the internet.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Border Gateway Protocol (BGP): This is a technical protocol for routing internet traffic between networks. It's used by internet service providers, not household devices.

    • Internet Protocol (IP): This is the basic protocol for sending data over the internet. While IoT uses IP, the concept described is specifically IoT.

    • Virtual Private Network (VPN): This creates a secure, encrypted connection over the internet for privacy. Not related to device-to-device communication.

    REMEMBER:

    IoT = everyday devices connected to the internet, communicating with each other automatically.

    Examples: smart homes, fitness trackers, self-driving cars, smart agriculture.

    The keyword is 'devices talking to each other.'

    Key learnings →IT & Computing
89. 89.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Terms sometimes seen in news	Context/Topic
    1.	Belle II experiment	Artificial Intelligence
    2.	Blockchain technology	Digital/Cryptocurrency
    3.	CRISPR-Cas9	Particle Physics

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

    Let's check each pair:

    1. Belle II experiment — Artificial Intelligence: WRONG. Belle II is a PARTICLE PHYSICS experiment, not an AI experiment. It studies subatomic particles called B mesons at the SuperKEKB accelerator in Japan. It has nothing to do with artificial intelligence.

    2. Blockchain technology — Digital/cryptocurrency: CORRECT. Blockchain is the underlying technology behind digital currencies like Bitcoin. It's a distributed digital ledger that records transactions across many computers securely and transparently.

    3. CRISPR-Cas9 — (the pair given was incorrect based on the question). CRISPR-Cas9 is a revolutionary gene-editing technology. It allows scientists to edit DNA precisely, like a 'molecular scissors' for genes. If the question paired it with something other than genetics/biotechnology, that pair was wrong.

    REMEMBER:

    • Belle II = particle physics (NOT AI).
    • Blockchain = digital currencies/cryptocurrency.
    • CRISPR-Cas9 = gene editing technology.

    These are frequently asked terms in current affairs — know what each one actually is.

    Key learnings →IT & Computing
90. 90.
    Science and Technology

    In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

    1. Mobile phone operations
    2. Banking operations
    3. Controlling the power grids

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    All three areas use GPS technology:

    1. Mobile phone operations — CORRECT: GPS is fundamental to mobile phones. It enables location services, navigation apps (Google Maps), ride-hailing (Uber/Ola), food delivery, and location-based advertising.

    2. Banking operations — CORRECT: Banks use GPS for various purposes like tracking ATM locations, geo-tagging transactions for fraud detection, and enabling location-based banking services.

    3. Controlling power grids — CORRECT: This might surprise you, but GPS is crucial for power grids. Power grids need extremely precise time synchronization to manage electricity flow. GPS satellites provide this precise timing, helping grid operators coordinate power generation and distribution across vast networks.

    GPS technology has 5 major application areas:

    • Location (determining position)
    • Navigation (getting directions)
    • Tracking (monitoring movement)
    • Mapping (creating maps)
    • Timing (precise time synchronization)

    REMEMBER: GPS is not just for maps and navigation. It's used in banking (fraud detection), power grids (time synchronization), agriculture, disaster management, and many more fields. If in doubt, GPS probably applies!

    Key learnings →Space
91. 91.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Light is affected by gravity.
    2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
    3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

    Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    All three statements are predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity (1915):

    1. Light is affected by gravity — CORRECT: Einstein predicted that massive objects (like stars) bend the path of light passing near them. This was proven during a solar eclipse in 1919 when starlight was seen bending around the Sun. This effect is called 'gravitational lensing.'

    2. The Universe is constantly expanding — CORRECT: Einstein's equations predicted that the universe cannot be static — it must be either expanding or contracting. In 1929, Edwin Hubble confirmed that the universe is expanding (galaxies are moving away from each other).

    3. Matter warps surrounding space-time — CORRECT: This is the central idea of General Relativity. Massive objects like the Sun create a 'dent' or curve in the fabric of space-time, and other objects (including light) follow this curved path. Think of placing a heavy ball on a stretched rubber sheet — it creates a dip, and smaller balls roll toward it.

    REMEMBER: Einstein's General Relativity predicted:

    • (1) Light bends near massive objects,
    • (2) Universe is expanding,
    • (3) Mass warps space-time.

    He also predicted black holes and gravitational waves (confirmed in 2016 by LIGO).

    Key learnings →Space
92. 92.
    Science and Technology

    With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

    1. PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
    2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location in Earth.
    3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3
    3. C1 and 2
    4. D3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is designed to launch earth observation/remote sensing satellites into Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits (orbits that pass over the poles). These satellites are used for earth resource monitoring, weather forecasting, and surveillance.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) uses a cryogenic engine (uses liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen as fuel at very low temperatures). However, the statement claims GSLV uses only solid and liquid fuel engines and no cryogenic engine — this is false. The cryogenic upper stage is the defining feature of GSLV. India developed its own cryogenic engine after Russia backed out of a technology transfer deal.

    3. Statement 3 is WRONG: PSLV CAN place satellites in Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO) too, though with smaller payloads. PSLV is a versatile workhorse — while it's mainly for polar orbits, it has successfully launched satellites into GTO as well (e.g., PSLV-XL variant).

    REMEMBER:

    • PSLV = polar orbits (earth observation satellites) — India's reliable workhorse.
    • GSLV = geostationary orbits (communication satellites) — uses cryogenic engine.
    • PSLV can also do GTO with smaller payloads.
    • Key fact: GSLV HAS a cryogenic engine (India developed it indigenously).

    Key learnings →Space
93. 93.
    Science and Technology

    With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:

    1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
    2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
    3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. DNone

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: IRNSS (Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System), also called NavIC, consists of 7 satellites. Of these, 3 are in geostationary orbit (GEO — they stay fixed over one point above the equator) and 4 are in geosynchronous orbit (GSO — they follow a figure-8 path over the equator).

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: IRNSS covers India and a region extending 1,500 km around it — it does NOT cover the entire world. It is a REGIONAL system, not global. That's why it's called 'Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System.' For comparison, GPS (American) and GLONASS (Russian) are global systems.

    3. Statement 3 is WRONG: India does use its own satellite system for navigation. GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) is India's space-based augmentation system that improves the accuracy of GPS signals over India. It was developed jointly by ISRO and AAI (Airports Authority of India). India is NOT fully dependent on only American GPS.

    REMEMBER:
    NavIC/IRNSS = 7 satellites (3 GEO + 4 GSO).
    Regional coverage only (India + 1,500 km).
    India also has GAGAN to improve GPS accuracy.
    NavIC is India's own navigation system — not dependent solely on American GPS.

    Key learnings →Space
94. 94.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    Consider the following countries:

    1. Australia
    2. Canada
    3. China
    4. India
    5. Japan
    6. USA.

    Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN?

    1. A1, 2, 4 and 5
    2. B3, 4, 5 and 6
    3. C1, 3, 4 and 5
    4. D2, 3, 4 and 6

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1, 3, 4 and 5

    The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established in August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration).

    Currently, it has 10 member nations which are:

    • Brunei
    • Cambodia
    • Indonesia
    • Laos
    • Malaysia
    • Myanmar
    • the Philippines
    • Singapore
    • Thailand
    • Vietnam.

    Option (c) is correct: ASEAN has a total of 6 free trade partners namely:

    • Australia
    • New Zealand
    • South Korea
    • Japan
    • India
    • China.

    ASEAN and its 5 free trade partners (excluding India) have entered into a regional trading agreement called the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP).

    The purpose of RCEP was to make it easier for products and services of each of these countries to be available across this region.

    India has however chosen to stay out of RCEP.

    Key learnings →Extended Neighbourhood and Other Regions
95. 95.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?

    1. AAngola and Zambia
    2. BMorocco and Tunisia
    3. CVenezuela and Colombia
    4. DYemen and South Sudan

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Yemen and South Sudan

    Correct Answer: (d) Yemen and South Sudan

    Both Yemen and South Sudan have faced severe famine and acute malnutrition in recent years:

    • Yemen: Due to the ongoing civil war (since 2015), Yemen has been called the world's worst humanitarian crisis by the United Nations. Millions have depended on external food aid, and the country has also battled a massive cholera outbreak.

    • South Sudan: After gaining independence in 2011, South Sudan fell into civil war in 2013. This led to widespread famine, with the UN officially declaring famine in parts of the country in 2017.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • Angola and Zambia — Not facing famine at this scale.
    • Morocco and Tunisia — These are relatively stable North African countries.
    • Venezuela and Colombia — Venezuela faced a severe economic crisis, but not famine at the scale of Yemen/South Sudan.

    REMEMBER: Yemen + South Sudan = the two countries with the worst famine crises in recent years. Both are linked to civil wars.

    Key learnings →Extended Neighbourhood and Other Regions
96. 96.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    The term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

    1. AChina
    2. BIsrael
    3. CIraq
    4. DYemen

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Israel

    Correct Answer: (b) Israel

    The 'two-state solution' refers to a proposed solution to the Israel-Palestine conflict. The idea is that:

    • Israel would continue as an independent Jewish state
    • Palestine would become an independent state alongside Israel

    This has been the internationally accepted framework for peace since the 1990s (Oslo Accords), though it remains unrealized.

    Why the other options are wrong:

    • China — Issues like Taiwan or Hong Kong are not described as a 'two-state solution.'
    • Iraq — Iraq has internal conflicts (Kurds, Sunni-Shia divide) but the phrase 'two-state solution' is not used for them.
    • Yemen — Yemen has a civil war between Houthi rebels and the government, but again, 'two-state solution' is not the standard term used.

    REMEMBER: 'Two-state solution' = Israel + Palestine living side by side as independent states. This phrase almost always refers to the Israel-Palestine conflict.

    Key learnings →Extended Neighbourhood and Other Regions
97. 97.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'?

    1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
    2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

    1. Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is like an exclusive club of countries that trade in nuclear technology.

       Being a member gives a country access to the latest nuclear technology — for power plants, medicine, and other peaceful uses.

       Without membership, a country may be denied many advanced technologies even if it can afford them.

       India got a one-time waiver in 2008, but full membership would give permanent access.

    2. Statement 2 is WRONG: Joining the NSG does NOT automatically make you a member of the NPT (Non-Proliferation Treaty).

       These are two separate things.

       In fact, India has deliberately stayed out of the NPT because signing it would mean giving up its nuclear weapons — something India won't do given its security concerns with neighbours like Pakistan and China.

    REMEMBER:

    • NSG membership = access to nuclear tech (correct).
    • NSG ≠ automatic NPT membership (wrong).
    • India avoids NPT because it would have to give up nuclear weapons.

    Key learnings →Major Powers
98. 98.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    International Labour Organization's Convention 138 and 182 are related to

    1. AChild labour
    2. BAdaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
    3. CRegulation of food prices and food security
    4. DGender parity at the workplace

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Child labour

    Correct Answer: (a) Child labour

    ILO Convention 138 and Convention 182 both deal with child labour:

    • Convention 138: Sets the minimum age for admission to employment. It requires countries to set a minimum working age that should not be below the age of completing compulsory schooling (generally 15 years).

    • Convention 182: Deals with the worst forms of child labour — like slavery, trafficking, forced labour, use of children in armed conflict, prostitution, and hazardous work. It calls for immediate action to eliminate these.

    India ratified both these conventions, aligning with its domestic laws like the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act.

    REMEMBER: ILO Convention 138 = minimum age for work. ILO Convention 182 = worst forms of child labour. Both = child labour related. India has ratified both.

    Key learnings →Multilateral System
99. 99.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?

    1. AThe civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
    2. BThe military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
    3. CThe country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
    4. DThe country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

    Correct Answer: (a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.

    The Additional Protocol with the IAEA is an agreement that gives the IAEA greater access to inspect and monitor a country's CIVILIAN nuclear programme.

    • Option A is CORRECT: By ratifying the Additional Protocol, India agreed to let the IAEA inspect its civilian nuclear facilities more thoroughly. This was a key commitment under the India-US Nuclear Deal (2005-2008).

    • Option B is WRONG: India's MILITARY nuclear installations do NOT come under IAEA inspection. India has clearly separated its civilian and military nuclear programmes. The IAEA only monitors civilian facilities.

    • Option C is WRONG: The Additional Protocol does not automatically give the right to buy uranium from NSG. The 2008 NSG waiver was a separate achievement.

    • Option D is WRONG: Ratifying the Additional Protocol does not make you an NSG member. These are separate processes.

    REMEMBER: Additional Protocol = IAEA gets more access to CIVILIAN nuclear facilities only. Military facilities remain outside IAEA inspection. This was part of the India-US nuclear deal.

    Key learnings →Multilateral System
100. 100.
     World Affairs (International Relations)

     "Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?

     1. AAmnesty International
     2. BInternational Court of Justice
     3. CThe Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
     4. DWorld Justice Report

     Show answer

     Answer: (D) World Justice Report

     Correct Answer: (d) World Justice Project

     The Rule of Law Index is published by the World Justice Project (WJP), not by any of the other options.

     Why the other options are wrong:

     • Amnesty International focuses on human rights violations and publishes reports on human rights, not rule of law rankings.

     • International Court of Justice (ICJ) is a UN court that settles disputes between countries — it doesn't publish indices.

     • The Office of the UN Commissioner for Human Rights deals with human rights issues, not rule of law rankings.

     REMEMBER: Rule of Law Index = World Justice Project (WJP). Don't confuse it with other international bodies that sound similar.

     Key learnings →News Through Maps

No questions for this subject.

End of paper · 100 questions · 2017 paper →