Home / Papers / UPSC Prelims GS 2017

1. 1.
   Ancient and Medieval Indian History

   Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?

   1. AKakinada
   2. BMotupalli
   3. CMachilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
   4. DNelluru

   Show answer

   Answer: (B) Motupalli

   Motupalli (also spelled Motupalle) was the chief seaport of the Kakatiya dynasty, which ruled over the Deccan region (present-day Andhra Pradesh and Telangana) from the 12th to 14th centuries.

   This port was significant enough to be visited by the famous Venetian traveller Marco Polo.

   While Kakinada and Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) are also well-known coastal towns in Andhra Pradesh, they are historically associated with later periods and different kingdoms.

   Nelluru (Nellore) is an inland town.

   The key fact to remember is:

   • Kakatiya kingdom
   • Motupalli port
   • Marco Polo connection.
   Key learnings →Early Medieval India (c. 600-1200 CE)
2. 2.
   Ancient and Medieval Indian History

   With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

   1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
   2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

   1. A1 only
   2. B2 only
   3. CBoth 1 and 2
   4. DNeither 1 nor 2

   Show answer

   Answer: (B) 2 only

   Statement 1 is incorrect:

   Sautrantika and Sammitiya (also called Sammitīya or Pudgalavādin) are both sects of Buddhism, not Jainism.

   Sautrantika was a Hinayana Buddhist school that accepted only the Sutras (discourses of Buddha) as authoritative.

   Sammitiya was another Hinayana school known for its 'Pudgalavada' (personalist) doctrine.

   Students often confuse Buddhist and Jain sects because both religions emerged around the same period in India.

   Statement 2 is correct:

   The Sarvastivadins (meaning 'those who say all exists') believed that the basic constituents of phenomena (called dharmas) were not completely momentary — unlike what other Buddhist schools taught.

   They held that dharmas existed forever in a latent form even when they were not actively manifesting.

   This is an important philosophical distinction within Buddhist thought.

   So only statement 2 is correct.

   Key learnings →Mahajanapadas, Buddhism, Jainism and Pre-Mauryan India
3. 3.
   Ancient and Medieval Indian History

   With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?

   1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.

   2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.

   3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having aware of this animal.

   Select the correct answer using the code given below:

   1. A1 only
   2. B2 and 3 only
   3. C1 and 3 only
   4. D1, 2 and 3

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

   Statement 1 is correct:

   The Rigveda contains references to armour (varma — coat of mail) and helmets used in warfare by the Aryans.

   In contrast, excavations at Indus Valley Civilization sites have not yielded any evidence of armour, helmets, or military equipment, which suggests the Harappans were largely a peaceful, trade-oriented society.

   Statement 2 is incorrect:

   The statement claims Indus Valley people knew 'only copper and iron' — this is wrong on two counts.

   • First, Harappans were well-acquainted with gold, silver, AND copper. Numerous gold and silver ornaments, beads, and artefacts have been found at Harappan sites.

   • Second, the Harappans did NOT know iron at all — iron technology came to India much later, around 1000-800 BCE, well after the decline of the Indus Valley Civilization (which ended around 1900 BCE). Indus Valley was a Bronze Age civilization.

   So both parts of statement 2 are factually wrong.

   Statement 3 is correct:

   The horse was domesticated by Rigvedic Aryans. In the Indus Valley Civilization, evidence of the horse comes from a superficial level of Mohenjodaro and from a doubtful terracotta figurine from Lothal. The remains of a horse are reported from Surkotada, situated in west Gujarat, and relate to around 2000 BCE but the identity is doubtful. Since the evidence is uncertain and disputed, the statement that there is 'no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal' is essentially correct.

   So statements 1 and 3 are correct.

   (Source: R.S. Sharma, Ancient India; A.L. Basham, The Wonder That Was India)

   Key learnings →Vedic Age
4. 4.
   Modern Indian History

   Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British Rule?

   1. Lord Cornwallis
   2. Alexander Read
   3. Thomas Munro

   Select the correct answer using the code given below:

   1. A1 only
   2. B1 and 3 only
   3. C2 and 3 only
   4. D1, 2 and 3

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

   The Ryotwari Settlement was a land revenue system introduced in parts of British India where the government collected taxes directly from the individual cultivator (ryot/raiyat) rather than through landlords or intermediaries.

   It was first tried on a small scale by Captain Alexander Read in some areas taken over by the British after the wars with Tipu Sultan in South India.

   Subsequently, it was developed and expanded by Thomas Munro across most of South India (Madras Presidency).

   Under Ryotwari, each ryot was recognized as the owner of their land and was individually responsible for paying revenue directly to the government.

   The revenue demand was typically 50% of the produce.

   Lord Cornwallis (option 1) is associated with the Permanent Settlement (also called Zamindari System), which was introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha in 1793 — a completely different system where revenue was collected through zamindars (landlords), not directly from cultivators.

   So Cornwallis should NOT be associated with Ryotwari.

   The three main land revenue systems under British rule were:

   • (1) Zamindari/Permanent Settlement — Lord Cornwallis — Bengal, Bihar, Odisha;
   • (2) Ryotwari — Alexander Read and Thomas Munro — Madras, Bombay;
   • (3) Mahalwari — Holt Mackenzie and Lord William Bentinck — North-Western Provinces, Punjab, parts of Central India.

   So only Alexander Read (2) and Thomas Munro (3) are correctly associated with Ryotwari.

   (Source: NCERT Class 8, Our Pasts-III, Chapter 3)

   Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
5. 5.
   Modern Indian History

   The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

   1. Athe participation of workers in the management of industries.
   2. Barbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
   3. Can intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
   4. Da system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

   Show answer

   Answer: (D) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

   The Trade Disputes Act (TDA) of 1929 was enacted by the British colonial government primarily to curb the growing labour movement and strike activities in India.

   Its key provisions included:

   • (1) It made compulsory the appointment of Courts of Inquiry and Conciliation Boards for settling industrial disputes — essentially creating a tribunal-like system.

   • (2) It made strikes ILLEGAL in public utility services (like posts, railways, water, and electricity) unless each individual worker gave one month's advance notice to the administration.

   • (3) It forbade trade union activities that were purely political or coercive in nature, and even banned sympathetic strikes (strikes in solidarity with workers in other industries).

   Option (a) is wrong — participation of workers in management was NOT a feature of this Act; it was a colonial-era law designed to RESTRICT worker power, not enhance it.

   Option (b) is wrong — the Act did not give 'arbitrary powers to management'; it created formal dispute resolution mechanisms.

   Option (c) is wrong — while it created inquiry mechanisms, describing it as 'intervention by the British Court' is inaccurate; the Act established specific tribunals and boards for this purpose.

   Option (d) is the best answer — 'a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes' accurately captures the two core features of the Act.

   (Source: Bipan Chandra, India's Struggle for Independence; Spectrum)

   Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
6. 6.
   Modern Indian History

   The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to

   1. ADefine the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
   2. BDefine the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
   3. CImpose censorship on national press.
   4. DImprove the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

   Show answer

   Answer: (D) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

   The Butler Committee (also known as the Indian States Committee) was appointed by the British Government on 16 December 1927, headed by Sir Harcourt Butler.

   Its primary objective was to examine and improve the relationship between the Government of India (British India) and the Indian Princely States (Native States).

   The Committee's key recommendations included:

   • (1) The Viceroy (rather than the Governor-General in Council) should represent the Crown in all dealings with the princely states.

   • (2) The relationship between the Crown and the princely states should not be transferred to a new Indian government without the consent of the princes. The princes feared that their states might be placed under the authority of a future Indian government responsible to an Indian legislature without their agreement. The Butler Committee sympathised with this fear and recommended that no such transfer should happen without princely consent.

   Option (a) is wrong — defining Centre-State jurisdiction was not the Butler Committee's purpose; this was addressed in other constitutional reforms.

   Option (b) is wrong — defining the Secretary of State's powers was not its mandate.

   Option (c) is wrong — press censorship was addressed by the Vernacular Press Act, 1878, not the Butler Committee.

   (Source: Spectrum, page 321; Bipan Chandra)

   Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
7. 7.
   Modern Indian History

   Consider the following statements:

   1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
   2. N. M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.

   Which of the above statements is/are correct?

   1. A1 only
   2. B2 only
   3. CBoth 1 and 2
   4. DNeither 1 nor 2

   Show answer

   Answer: (B) 2 only

   Statement 1 is incorrect:

   The Factories Act, 1881 was the first factory legislation in India, passed during the viceroyalty of Lord Ripon.

   Its provisions included:

   • (a) Prohibition of employment of children under the age of 7 years in factories,
   • (b) Limiting working hours for children below 12 years of age,
   • (c) Requiring dangerous machinery to be properly fenced for worker safety,
   • (d) Providing for one hour of rest during working hours,
   • (e) Granting four days of leave per month to workers, and
   • (f) Appointing inspectors to supervise implementation.

   Crucially, the Act did NOT contain any provisions for fixing wages of industrial workers or for allowing workers to form trade unions. Wage-fixing came under later legislation, and the right to form trade unions was granted much later by the Trade Unions Act of 1926.

   Statement 2 is correct:

   Narayan Meghaji Lokhande (1848-1897) is widely recognized as a pioneer of the labour movement in British India.

   He was a social reformer and labour leader who championed the cause of textile mill workers in Bombay (Mumbai).

   He organized the Bombay Mill Hands Association (1890), which is considered one of the earliest labour organizations in India, and successfully campaigned for better working conditions, reduced working hours, and weekly holidays for workers.

   He is also remembered for his work on caste and communal issues.

   So only statement 2 is correct.

   (Source: Bipan Chandra, India's Struggle for Independence, Chapter on the Indian Working Class and the National Movement)

   Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)
8. 8.
   Modern Indian History

   In the context of Indian history, the principle of 'Dyarchy (diarchy)' refers to

   1. ADivision of the central legislature into two houses.
   2. BIntroductions of double government i.e., Central and Statement governments.
   3. CHaving two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
   4. DDivision of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

   Show answer

   Answer: (D) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

   Dyarchy (or Diarchy) was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919 (also called the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms).

   Under this Act, the subjects of administration were divided into two categories:

   • Central subjects
   • Provincial subjects

   The provincial subjects were further subdivided into two categories — 'Reserved' subjects and 'Transferred' subjects.

   Reserved subjects (like finance, law and order, land revenue) were administered by the Governor with the help of executive councillors who were NOT responsible to the legislature.

   Transferred subjects (like education, public health, local self-government) were administered by the Governor with the help of ministers who were WERE responsible to the legislature.

   This dual system of governance at the provincial level — with one set of subjects under accountable ministers and another under non-accountable councillors — was called 'Dyarchy' (meaning double rule).

   Option (a) is wrong because Dyarchy is not about dividing the legislature into two houses.

   Option (b) is wrong because it is not about Central vs State governments.

   Option (c) is wrong because it is not about two sets of rulers in London and Delhi.

   (Source: NCERT)

   Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)
9. 9.
   Modern Indian History

   With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:

   1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
   2. Quit Indian Movement launched
   3. Second Round Table Conference

   What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

   1. A1-2-3
   2. B2-1-3
   3. C3-2-1
   4. D3-1-2

   Show answer

   Answer: (C) 3-2-1

   To solve this, you need to know the dates of each event:

   (1) Second Round Table Conference:
   Held from 7 September to 1 December 1931 in London.
   Mahatma Gandhi attended as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress.
   It discussed the future constitutional framework of India but ended without significant agreement.

   (2) Quit India Movement:
   Launched on 8 August 1942 by Mahatma Gandhi at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee.
   Gandhi gave the famous 'Do or Die' call, demanding an immediate end to British rule.
   It was the most aggressive mass movement of the freedom struggle and led to mass arrests of Congress leaders.

   (3) Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy (RIN):
   Also called the Royal Indian Navy Revolt, it began on 18 February 1946 when Indian sailors (ratings) on the ship HMIS Talwar in Bombay harbour went on strike.
   It quickly spread to other ships and naval establishments across India.
   The revolt was significant because it showed that even the armed forces were turning against British rule.

   So the correct chronological order is:
   Second Round Table Conference (1931) → Quit India Movement (1942) → RIN Mutiny (1946), which is 3-2-1.

   (Source: NCERT Class 12, Themes in Indian History-III, Chapter 13)

   Key learnings →Gandhian Phase II (1929-1939)
10. 10.
    Modern Indian History

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Person	Association
    1.	Radhakanta Deb	First President of the British Indian Association
    2.	Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty	Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
    3.	Surendranath Banerjee	Founder of the Indian Association

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

    Pair 1 is correctly matched:

    Raja Radhakanta Deb was indeed the first President of the British Indian Association, which was established on 31 October 1851 in Calcutta.

    Other founding members included:

    • Raja Kalikrishna Deb (Vice-President)
    • Debendranath Tagore (Secretary)
    • Digambar Mitra (Assistant Secretary).

    The association was one of the earliest political organizations in British India.

    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched:

    Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty was an Indian merchant and political activist, but he founded the Madras NATIVE Association (in 1852), NOT the Madras Mahajana Sabha.

    The Madras Mahajana Sabha was established much later in May 1884 by:

    • M. Veeraraghavachariar
    • G. Subramania Iyer
    • P. Anandacharlu.

    This is a classic UPSC trap — the names 'Madras Native Association' and 'Madras Mahajana Sabha' sound similar and both are Madras-based, which makes students confuse the two.

    Pair 3 is correctly matched:

    Surendranath Banerjee, along with Anand Mohan Bose, founded the Indian Association in 1876 in Calcutta.

    It was the first declared nationalist organization in British India and played a key role in the early national movement.

    So only Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

    (Source: NCERT Class 8, The Making of the National Movement: 1870s-1947)

    Key learnings →Rise of Nationalism and Moderate Phase (1870-1905)
11. 11.
    Art and Culture

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Traditions	Communities
    1.	Chaliha Sahib Festival	Sindhis
    2.	Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra	Gonds
    3.	Wari-Warkari	Santhals

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. DNone of the above

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Pair 1 is correctly matched:

    Chaliha Sahib Festival is a festival of the Sindhi community.

    It involves devotees observing a 40-day fast (chaliha means forty) in honour of Jhulelal, the patron saint of Sindhis.

    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched:

    Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra is NOT associated with the Gonds.

    It is one of the largest and most famous religious yatras of the Kumaon and Garhwal regions of Uttarakhand.

    It is celebrated in the Nanda Devi temples across these regions and symbolises the Devi's journey from her parents' home (maiti) to her husband's home — a tradition beautifully expressed in the folk songs of Uttarakhand.

    The Gonds are a tribal community primarily found in central India (Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra).

    Pair 3 is incorrectly matched:

    Wari (also called Pandharpur Wari) is NOT associated with the Santhals.

    It is an annual pilgrimage to Pandharpur in Maharashtra — the seat of the god Vithoba — undertaken by the Warkari sect.

    Palakhis (palanquins) carrying the padukas (footprints) of saints like Dnyaneshwar and Tukaram are taken from their respective shrines to Pandharpur.

    The Santhals are a tribal community found mainly in Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha.

    So only Pair 1 is correctly matched.

    Key learnings →Handicrafts and Living Traditions
12. 12.
    Art and Culture

    Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

    1. Arasavalli
    2. Amarakantak
    3. Omkareshwar

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Only Arasavalli is famous for its Sun Temple.

    The Arasavalli Sun Temple is located in Arasavalli village near Srikakulam in Andhra Pradesh.

    It is one of the few temples in India dedicated to the Sun God (Surya) and is an important pilgrimage site.

    It was built by the Kalinga kings around the 7th century CE.

    Other well-known Sun Temples in India include the Konark Sun Temple (Odisha) and the Modhera Sun Temple (Gujarat), though these were not listed as options.

    Amarakantak (Madhya Pradesh) is a pilgrimage town famous as the source of the Narmada River and the Sone River.

    It has temples dedicated to Shiva and Narmada, but it is NOT known for a Sun Temple.

    Omkareshwar (Madhya Pradesh) is one of the 12 Jyotirlinga shrines of Lord Shiva, located on an island in the Narmada River.

    It is also NOT associated with a Sun Temple.

    This question tests in-depth knowledge of India's cultural heritage and temple geography.

    So only statement 1 (Arasavalli) is correct.

    Key learnings →Indian Architecture
13. 13.
    Art and Culture

    The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at

    1. AAjanta
    2. BBadami
    3. CBagh
    4. DEllora

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Ajanta

    The famous painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is located on the back wall of the interior hall (before the shrine-antechamber) in Cave No. 1 at Ajanta, dating back to the late 5th century CE.

    In the painting, the Bodhisattva is shown holding a padma (lotus flower) — which is why he is called 'Padmapani' (lotus-bearer).

    The figure has large shoulders, wears a decorated crown, and the body has three bends (tribhanga posture) that create a graceful movement in the picture.

    The modelling is soft and the overall effect is deeply spiritual.

    Ajanta caves (Maharashtra) are famous for their Buddhist rock-cut cave paintings and sculptures spanning from the 2nd century BCE to about the 6th century CE.

    While Badami, Bagh, and Ellora are also important art sites, this specific painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is uniquely identified with Ajanta's Cave No. 1.

    This is a basic question from Indian art history.

    (Source: An Introduction to Indian Art, NCERT)

    Key learnings →Indian Architecture
14. 14.
    Art and Culture

    With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

    1. It is a song and dance performance.
    2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
    3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1, 2 and 3
    2. B1 and 3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

    Statements 1 and 3 are correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.

    Statement 1 is correct:

    Manipuri Sankirtana is indeed a song and dance performance.

    It encompasses an array of performing arts that combine singing, drumming, and dancing.

    It is a ritual practice of the Vaishnava community of the Manipur plains and was inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2013.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    Cymbals are NOT the only musical instruments used.

    In a typical Sankirtana performance, two drummers (playing the pung/mridanga — a Manipuri barrel drum) and about ten singer-dancers perform together.

    So both drums and cymbals are used, along with vocal singing.

    The statement's use of the word 'only' makes it wrong.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    Sankirtana is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

    The practices centre on the temple, where performers narrate episodes from Krishna's life through devotional singing and expressive dance.

    The performances mark religious occasions and various stages in the life of the Vaishnava people.

    Key facts:

    Manipuri Sankirtana = song + dance + drumming = Vaishnavism/Krishna devotion = UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage (2013) = Manipur plains.

    So statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Key learnings →Indian Music, Dance and Theatre
15. 15.
    Geography

    Consider the following statements:

    1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five states only.
    2. Western Ghats are spread over five states only.
    3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1 and 3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 3 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The Himalayas in India spread over more than five states.

    They cover Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, West Bengal (Darjeeling hills), Assam, and Arunachal Pradesh.

    Some extensions of the Shiwalik range also touch Punjab and Haryana.

    So saying 'five states only' is clearly wrong.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    The Western Ghats spread across six states — Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu — not five.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    Pulicat Lake, the second largest brackish water lagoon in India, lies on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (about 40% in Andhra Pradesh and 60% in Tamil Nadu).

    It spreads over exactly two states.

    This question requires detailed knowledge of the Atlas and careful observation of how geographical features span across state boundaries.

    Since only statement 3 is correct, the answer is (b).

    Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
16. 16.
    Geography

    Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

    1. ASumatra
    2. BBorneo
    3. CJava
    4. DSri Lanka

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Sumatra

    Great Nicobar is the southernmost and largest island of the Nicobar Islands group, which is part of India's Andaman and Nicobar Islands union territory.

    It is located at the southeastern tip of the Bay of Bengal.

    Sumatra (Indonesia) lies just about 150-180 km south of Great Nicobar, separated by the Six Degree Channel (also called the Great Channel).

    This makes Sumatra by far the geographically closest among the listed options.

    Borneo (shared by Malaysia, Indonesia, and Brunei) lies much further east.

    Java (Indonesia) is even further south and east.

    Sri Lanka is far to the west, located off the southeastern coast of India near Tamil Nadu.

    This question tests basic map reading and spatial awareness of India's island territories.

    A useful fact: India's southernmost point, Indira Point, is located on Great Nicobar Island, and it was severely damaged during the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami.

    The proximity of Great Nicobar to Sumatra gives it strategic significance for India's 'Look East' (now 'Act East') policy.

    Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
17. 17.
    Geography

    From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

    1. ASathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
    2. BNallamala Forest
    3. CNagarhole National Park
    4. DSeshachalam Biosphere Reserve

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

    Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is located in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu and is the largest wildlife sanctuary in the state, with a forest area of about 1,411.6 sq km.

    Ecologically, it occupies a crucial corridor position in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, serving as a significant wildlife link between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats.

    This makes it a vital ecological bridge allowing the movement of wildlife (including tigers, elephants, and bears) between these two mountain systems.

    The reserve also adjoins four other important protected areas:

    • Billigiriranga Swamy Temple (BRT) Wildlife Sanctuary
    • Sigur Plateau
    • Mudumalai National Park
    • Bandipur National Park

    This forms a large contiguous habitat.

    Option (b) Nallamala Forest is located in Andhra Pradesh/Telangana and is part of the Eastern Ghats but does not serve as a link to the Western Ghats.

    Option (c) Nagarhole National Park is in Karnataka, entirely within the Western Ghats ecosystem, not a link between the two Ghats.

    Option (d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve is in Andhra Pradesh in the Eastern Ghats and similarly does not act as a bridge to the Western Ghats.

    Sathyamangalam was in the news for an increase in bear population and for revival of its eco-tourism plan in 2016.

    The key association: Sathyamangalam = ecological corridor = Western Ghats ↔ Eastern Ghats link.

    Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
18. 18.
    Geography

    With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

    1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
    2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
    3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The Teesta River does NOT share the same source as the Brahmaputra.

    The Teesta originates from the Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse) glacier at an altitude of about 7,068 metres in the Sikkim Himalayas and flows southward through Sikkim.

    The Brahmaputra, on the other hand, originates near the Angsi Glacier in Tibet (near Mount Kailash/Lake Mansarovar area).

    These are completely different sources separated by hundreds of kilometres.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    The Rangeet River (also spelled Rangit) does originate in Sikkim and is the main tributary of the Teesta River.

    The two rivers meet near Teesta Bazaar in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal.

    Statement 3 is incorrect:

    The Teesta River does NOT flow directly into the Bay of Bengal at the India-Bangladesh border.

    Instead, after flowing through Sikkim and West Bengal, the Teesta enters Bangladesh and merges with the Brahmaputra River (called Jamuna in Bangladesh), which then flows into the Bay of Bengal.

    So the Teesta is a tributary of the Brahmaputra system, not an independent river flowing into the Bay of Bengal.

    The Teesta has been frequently in the news due to the India-Bangladesh water-sharing dispute — a bilateral agreement on sharing Teesta waters has been pending for years.

    So only statement 2 is correct.

    Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
19. 19.
    Geography

    With reference to 'Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)' sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.

    2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino's impact on the monsoon.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature (SST) between the tropical WESTERN Indian Ocean and the tropical EASTERN Indian Ocean — not the Eastern Pacific Ocean.

    The question deliberately replaces 'Eastern Indian Ocean' with 'Eastern Pacific Ocean' to confuse students.

    The El Nino phenomenon involves the Pacific Ocean, while IOD is entirely an Indian Ocean phenomenon.

    A positive IOD means the western Indian Ocean is warmer than the eastern Indian Ocean, and a negative IOD means the opposite.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    An IOD phenomenon can significantly influence the impact of El Nino on the Indian monsoon.

    For example, a positive IOD can counteract (weaken) the negative effects of El Nino on the Indian monsoon, potentially bringing good rainfall even during an El Nino year.

    Conversely, a negative IOD can worsen a drought during an El Nino year.

    This interplay between IOD and El Nino is a key concept in understanding Indian monsoon variability.

    So only statement 2 is correct.

    Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
20. 20.
    Geography

    If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam,

    what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel,

    including the origin and the destination?

    1. A6
    2. B7
    3. C8
    4. D9

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 7

    To solve this, you need to trace the shortest road route from Kohima (capital of Nagaland, in northeast India) to Kottayam (in Kerala, in southwest India) on the map and count how many states you must pass through.

    The optimal route passes through 7 states:

    • (1) Nagaland (origin — Kohima),
    • (2) Assam (Nagaland connects to the rest of India via Assam),
    • (3) West Bengal (via the Siliguri corridor or through lower Assam into West Bengal),
    • (4) Odisha (continuing south from West Bengal along the east coast),
    • (5) Andhra Pradesh (south of Odisha),
    • (6) Tamil Nadu (continuing south/southwest from Andhra Pradesh),
    • (7) Kerala (destination — Kottayam).

    Some students might wonder about alternative routes through Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, or Karnataka, but these would add more states, not fewer.

    The route through the eastern coast (West Bengal → Odisha → Andhra Pradesh) and then cutting across to Tamil Nadu and Kerala is the most direct.

    This question requires excellent map skills and knowledge of India's political geography — specifically how states are arranged and which borders which.

    (Source: Atlas of India)

    Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
21. 21.
    Geography

    At one of the place in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea,

    'you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes.

    This unique phenomenon is seen at

    1. ABhavnagar
    2. BBheemunipatnam
    3. CChandipur
    4. DNagapattinam

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Chandipur

    This unique tidal phenomenon is associated with Chandipur beach (also called Chandipur-on-Sea), located in the Balasore district of Odisha.

    Chandipur is famous worldwide for its 'hide-and-seek' beach — during low tide, the sea water recedes (withdraws) from the shoreline by 1 to 5 kilometres, exposing the sea floor and allowing people to literally walk on it.

    During high tide, the water returns. This phenomenon occurs twice daily due to the tidal cycle. The extremely flat and gentle slope of the continental shelf at Chandipur, combined with the tidal range, causes this dramatic recession of water.

    Chandipur is also known as the location of the Indian Army's Integrated Test Range (ITR) where missiles like BrahMos, Agni, and Akash are test-fired — which is why it appears in news frequently.

    Option (a)

    • Bhavnagar (Gujarat) — has the highest tidal range in India (up to 10-12 metres) but the sea does not recede kilometres inland in the same dramatic way.

    Option (b)

    • Bheemunipatnam (Andhra Pradesh) — is an ancient port town but is not known for this specific phenomenon.

    Option (d)

    • Nagapattinam (Tamil Nadu) — is a coastal town known for fishing and was severely affected by the 2004 tsunami, but does not exhibit this tidal retreat.
    Key learnings →Oceanography
22. 22.
    Geography

    Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

    1. Jordan
    2. Iraq
    3. Lebanon
    4. Syria

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1, 2 and 3
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C3 and 4 only
    4. D1, 3 and 4 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only

    The countries with coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea include:

    • Turkey
    • Syria
    • Lebanon
    • Israel
    • Egypt
    • Libya
    • Tunisia
    • Algeria
    • Morocco
    • Spain
    • France
    • Italy
    • Greece
    • Croatia
    • and several others.

    On the eastern shore specifically, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, and Israel have their coastlines on the Mediterranean.

    The trap in this question is that all four countries listed (Jordan, Iraq, Lebanon, Syria) are in West Asia, so students might assume all of them border the Mediterranean.

    However, Jordan is a landlocked country with access only to a small stretch of the Red Sea (Gulf of Aqaba), and Iraq's coastline is on the Persian Gulf, not the Mediterranean.

    Therefore, only Lebanon (3) and Syria (4) have Mediterranean coastlines, making option (c) correct.

    This question tests careful map reading of the West Asia region.

    Key learnings →World Physical Geography
23. 23.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Election Commission of India is a five- member body.
    2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
    3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 3 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a three-member body, NOT a five-member body.

    It consists of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two other Election Commissioners.

    Originally, the Commission had only the CEC, but two additional commissioners were appointed in 1989 (briefly) and then permanently from 1993.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    The election schedule for both general elections and bye-elections is decided by the Election Commission of India itself, NOT by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.

    The ECI is an independent constitutional body (Article 324) that has autonomous power over the superintendence, direction, and control of elections.

    No ministry can dictate its schedule.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    The Election Commission does resolve disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognized political parties.

    When a political party splits, both factions may claim to be the 'real' party and seek the party's election symbol.

    The ECI adjudicates such disputes using the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, and decides which faction gets the party symbol based on factors like majority of organizational members and legislators.

    So only statement 3 is correct.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Election Commission)

    Key learnings →Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
24. 24.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.

    2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    India follows the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system for Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections, NOT a majority system requiring 50% of votes.

    Under FPTP, the candidate who gets more votes than any other candidate wins — even if that number is far less than 50%.

    For example, in a constituency with 5 candidates, someone could win with just 25-30% of votes as long as they got more than everyone else.

    The 50% requirement exists in some other countries (like France's two-round system), but NOT in India.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    The Constitution does NOT specify that the Speaker's post must go to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's post to the Opposition.

    Article 93 (for Lok Sabha) simply says that the House shall choose two of its members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker.

    There is no constitutional provision mandating party-based allocation.

    In practice, while the Speaker usually comes from the ruling party and the Deputy Speaker is sometimes offered to the Opposition by convention, this is a political practice, not a constitutional requirement.

    Since both statements are wrong, the answer is (d).

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Parliament)

    Key learnings →Elections
25. 25.
    Indian Polity

    Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

    1. AAn arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out the satisfaction of all.
    2. BA mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
    3. CA mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
    4. DA device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

    The Cabinet form of government (also called Parliamentary government, Westminster model, or Responsible government) is fundamentally based on the principle of collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.

    This means the Council of Ministers (Cabinet) as a whole is accountable to the Lok Sabha (or State Assembly).

    If the legislature loses confidence in the Cabinet, the entire ministry must resign.

    This is the defining feature that distinguishes parliamentary government from presidential government.

    Option (a) is wrong — the purpose of Cabinet government is not to minimize criticism.

    Option (b) is wrong — while Cabinet government can be efficient, its core principle is accountability, not speed.

    Option (d) is wrong — Cabinet government is not a device for strengthening a declining leader's hold.

    The key features of parliamentary government in India include:

    • (a) Presence of nominal (President) and real (Prime Minister) executives,
    • (b) Majority party rule,
    • (c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
    • (d) Ministers must be members of the legislature,
    • (e) Leadership of the Prime Minister, and
    • (f) Power to dissolve the lower house.

    Among all these, collective responsibility is the central organizing principle.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Salient Features of the Constitution)

    Key learnings →Executive
26. 26.
    Indian Polity

    Which one of the following is not a feature to Indian federalism?

    1. AThere is an independent judiciary in India.
    2. BPowers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
    3. CThe federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
    4. DIt is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

    Indian federalism has several key features:

    independent judiciary, division of powers between Centre and States, written Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, and bicameralism (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha).

    Options (a), (b), and (c) are all genuine features of Indian federalism.

    Option (a) — Independent judiciary: India has an independent judiciary that acts as the guardian of the Constitution and arbiter of disputes between Centre and States.

    Option (b) — Division of powers: The Seventh Schedule divides subjects into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

    Option (c) — Unequal representation in Rajya Sabha: States do have unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha — larger states like UP have more seats than smaller states like Goa. This is actually a feature of Indian federalism (unlike the US Senate where each state has equal representation).

    Option (d) is NOT a feature of Indian federalism: The Indian federation was NOT created through an agreement among federating units (unlike the USA, where 13 independent colonies came together by agreement to form a federation).

    Article 1 describes India as a 'Union of States', which implies two things:

    (1) Indian federation is NOT the result of an agreement among states, and

    (2) no state has the right to secede from the Union.

    India's states were created by the Constitution itself and can be reorganised, merged, or divided by Parliament through ordinary legislation.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Salient Features)

    Key learnings →Federalism & Local Self Government
27. 27.
    Indian Polity

    Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

    1. AFederalism
    2. BDemocratic decentralization
    3. CAdministrative delegation
    4. DDirect democracy

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Democratic decentralization

    Local self-government is best described as an exercise in democratic decentralization.

    Democratic decentralization means transferring power, authority, and resources from the central/state government to local elected bodies (like Panchayats and Municipalities) so that people at the grassroots level can participate in governance and decision-making that directly affects their lives.

    The concept gained prominence in India through the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957), which recommended establishing a scheme of 'democratic decentralisation' — later known as Panchayati Raj.

    The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayats and Municipalities respectively.

    Option (a) 'Federalism' is wrong — federalism refers to the division of powers between the Centre and States, not the devolution of power to local bodies.

    Option (c) 'Administrative delegation' is wrong — this implies merely assigning administrative tasks to lower officials without giving them independent decision-making authority or electoral legitimacy. Local self-government goes beyond mere delegation — it involves elected bodies with their own powers.

    Option (d) 'Direct democracy' is wrong — direct democracy means citizens directly vote on every issue (like in ancient Athens or Swiss referendums). Indian local self-government operates through elected representatives, making it representative democracy at the local level, not direct democracy.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Panchayati Raj)

    Key learnings →Federalism & Local Self Government
28. 28.
    Indian Polity

    The main advantage of the parliamentary form of governments is that

    1. Athe executive and legislature work independently.
    2. Bit provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
    3. Cthe executive remains responsible to the legislature.
    4. Dthe head of the government cannot be changed without election.

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

    The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that the executive remains responsible (accountable) to the legislature.

    This means the Council of Ministers (headed by the Prime Minister) must maintain the confidence of the Lok Sabha.

    If the legislature passes a no-confidence motion against the government, the entire ministry must resign.

    This ensures continuous accountability.

    Option (a) is wrong — in a parliamentary system, the executive and legislature do NOT work independently.

    In fact, they are closely linked (ministers must be members of the legislature).

    Independent functioning of executive and legislature is a feature of the PRESIDENTIAL system (like in the USA).

    Option (b) is wrong — continuity of policy and efficiency are often cited as advantages of the PRESIDENTIAL system, where the executive has a fixed term and cannot be removed by the legislature easily.

    Option (d) is wrong — in a parliamentary system, the head of government CAN be changed without a general election (through a no-confidence motion or internal party change), which is actually a feature, not a bug.

    This question tests whether you can distinguish the core features of parliamentary vs. presidential systems.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Salient Features of the Constitution)

    Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
29. 29.
    Indian Polity

    Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

    1. Athe intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
    2. Bthe methods for strengthening executive leadership.
    3. Ca superior individual with dynamism and vision.
    4. Da band on dedicated party workers.

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

    This question is based on the political philosophy underlying democracy, particularly drawing from J.S. Mill's ideas on representative government.

    The core argument is that democracy's greatest virtue is not efficiency, strong leadership, or party machinery — but that it calls into activity the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

    In a democracy, common citizens participate in governance through voting, public debate, and civic engagement, which develops their intellectual and moral capacities.

    Mill argued that self-development of citizens is best achieved when they participate in the making and working of their government.

    Option (b) is wrong because democracy's primary virtue is not about strengthening executive leadership — that describes authoritarianism.

    Option (c) is wrong because relying on a 'superior individual with dynamism and vision' describes a model closer to Plato's philosopher-king or a charismatic dictatorship, not democracy**.

    Option (d) is wrong because democracy is not about dedicated party workers — it is about the participation of ALL citizens regardless of party affiliation.

    This question tests the philosophical foundation of democracy rather than its institutional mechanics.

    (Source: N.D. Arora and S.S. Awasthi, Political Theory and Political Thought)

    Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
30. 30.
    Indian Polity

    In India, Judicial Review implies

    1. Athe power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
    2. Bthe power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
    3. Cthe power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
    4. Dthe power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

    Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments (laws passed by Parliament/State Legislatures) and executive orders of both the Central and State governments.

    If a law or executive order is found to violate the Constitution (i.e., is ultra vires or beyond the power granted), the court can declare it illegal, unconstitutional, and void — meaning the government cannot enforce it.

    The constitutional validity of a law can be challenged on three grounds:

    • (a) it infringes Fundamental Rights (Part III),
    • (b) it is outside the competence of the authority that made it (e.g., a state legislature making a law on a Union List subject), or
    • (c) it is repugnant to constitutional provisions.

    Option (b) is wrong: Judicial review is NOT about questioning the 'wisdom' or 'merit' of a law.

    Courts do not judge whether a law is good policy or bad policy — they only check whether it is constitutionally valid. This is an important distinction.

    Option (c) is wrong: Courts do NOT review all legislative enactments BEFORE they receive Presidential assent.

    Judicial review happens AFTER a law is enacted, usually when someone challenges it in court.

    India does not have a system of pre-legislative judicial review.

    Option (d) is wrong: Reviewing earlier judgements is called 'review jurisdiction' or 'curative petition', which is different from 'judicial review'.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on High Court and Supreme Court)

    Key learnings →Judiciary
31. 31.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

    1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
    2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Both statements are incorrect.

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    A Private Member's Bill is a bill introduced by any Member of Parliament who is NOT a minister.

    It has nothing to do with whether the member is elected or nominated.

    Both elected and nominated members can introduce private member's bills — the only criterion is that the member should not be a minister.

    The distinction is between 'Government Bills' (introduced by ministers) and 'Private Member's Bills' (introduced by non-minister MPs).

    A private member's bill requires one month's notice for introduction, and its drafting is the responsibility of the member concerned (unlike government bills, which are drafted by the concerned ministry).

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    Private member's bills have been passed by Parliament before — this is not a first-time event.

    The last Private Member's Bill passed by Parliament was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968, which became an Act in 1970.

    What happened recently (in 2015) was that the Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014 was passed by the Rajya Sabha — this was notable because it was the first private member's bill to get the upper house's approval in 45 years, but it was NOT the first time ever in India's parliamentary history.

    The question uses 'for the first time in its history' which makes it wrong.

    Since both statements are incorrect, the answer is (d).

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Parliament)

    Key learnings →Legislature
32. 32.
    Indian Polity

    The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

    1. Adjournment motion
    2. Questions hour
    3. Supplementary questions

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    All three are devices through which Parliament exercises control over the Council of Ministers:

    (1) Adjournment Motion:
    This is a motion moved by a member to draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance.
    If admitted, it leads to a debate and the regular business of the House is set aside.
    It serves as a censure (criticism) of the government and allows Parliament to hold ministers accountable on urgent matters.
    It is available only in Lok Sabha.

    (2) Question Hour:
    The first hour of every parliamentary sitting (11 AM to 12 noon) is devoted to questions.
    Members ask questions to ministers about the functioning of their ministries and departments.
    This is one of the most effective tools of parliamentary oversight — it forces ministers to be prepared and accountable for their department's actions.
    Questions can be:

    • starred (requiring oral answer with supplementary questions)
    • unstarred (written answer)
    • short notice questions.

    (3) Supplementary Questions:
    During Question Hour, after a minister answers a starred question, other members can ask follow-up (supplementary) questions on the same topic.
    These are spontaneous and cannot be prepared in advance by ministers, making them a powerful tool for extracting information and holding the government accountable.

    Other devices for parliamentary control include:

    • no-confidence motion
    • calling attention motion
    • half-an-hour discussion
    • zero hour.

    All three listed devices are valid, so the answer is (d).

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Parliamentary System)

    Key learnings →Legislature
33. 33.
    Indian Polity

    For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

    1. Aanyone residing in India.
    2. Ba resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
    3. Cany citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
    4. Dany citizen of India.

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

    To file a nomination for election to the Lok Sabha, a person must satisfy three key qualifications:

    (1) Must be a citizen of India,

    (2) Must be at least 25 years of age, and

    (3) Must be registered as an elector (voter) for any parliamentary constituency in India.

    Option (a) is wrong because mere residence in India is not enough — citizenship and electoral registration are required.

    Option (b) is wrong because you do NOT need to be a resident of the particular constituency you are contesting from — you only need to be on the electoral roll of any parliamentary constituency.

    Option (d) is wrong because being a citizen alone is insufficient — you must also be registered as a voter.

    The correct answer is (c) because it captures both essential conditions: citizenship + name on electoral roll.

    (Source: Laxmikant, chapter on Parliament)

    Key learnings →Legislature
34. 34.
    Indian Polity

    Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

    1. AFundamental Right
    2. BNatural Right
    3. CConstitutional Right
    4. DLegal Right

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Legal Right

    This is a tricky and frequently debated question.

    According to the Supreme Court's landmark judgment in Jyoti Basu vs Debi Ghosal (1982), the right to elect and the right to be elected are neither fundamental rights nor common law rights — they are statutory rights (i.e., legal rights created by statute/law).

    The Representation of the People Act, 1951 governs elections in India, and the right to vote flows from this statute, not directly from the Fundamental Rights chapter of the Constitution.

    Option (a) is wrong because the right to vote is NOT listed under Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution. While Article 326 provides for adult suffrage, the Supreme Court has clarified that this does not make voting a fundamental right.

    Option (b) is wrong because 'natural right' is a philosophical concept, not a legal category recognized in Indian constitutional law.

    Option (c) is debatable — while Article 326 does appear in the Constitution, the Supreme Court's interpretation is that the right to vote is a statutory/legal right, not a constitutional right in the strict sense.

    The answer key treats it as a 'Legal Right' based on the Supreme Court's interpretation.

    Note: NCERT Class 11 (Indian Constitution at Work, Chapter 3) discusses voting rights under Article 326, which has led to some debate about whether the answer should be (c) or (d).

    However, going by the Supreme Court's jurisprudence, (d) Legal Right is the accepted answer.

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
35. 35.
    Indian Polity

    Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

    1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
    2. Abolition of untouchability
    3. Protection of the interests of minorities
    4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1, 2 and 4 only
    2. B2, 3 and 4 only
    3. C1 and 4 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1 and 4 only

    The Right against Exploitation is covered under Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution (Part III — Fundamental Rights).

    Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings (buying and selling of people, including immoral trafficking), begar (forced unpaid labour), and other similar forms of forced labour.

    This right protects individuals not only against the State but also against private persons.

    Any violation is a punishable offence.

    Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in any factory, mine, or other hazardous activities (like construction work).

    However, it does NOT prohibit their employment in non-hazardous or non-dangerous work.

    So items 1 and 4 fall squarely under the Right against Exploitation.

    Item 2 (Abolition of untouchability) is covered under Article 17, which falls under the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18), NOT under the Right against Exploitation.

    Item 3 (Protection of interests of minorities) is covered under Articles 29-30, which fall under Cultural and Educational Rights, NOT under the Right against Exploitation.

    A common mistake students make is grouping all social justice provisions together.

    UPSC tests whether you know the exact classification of each right under the correct fundamental right category.

    So only items 1 and 4 are correct.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Fundamental Rights)

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
36. 36.
    Indian Polity

    Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

    1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
    2. They are correlative to legal duties.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Both statements are incorrect.

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The Constitution does NOT provide any legislative process or enforcement mechanism for Fundamental Duties.

    Unlike Fundamental Rights (which are justiciable and enforceable through courts under Articles 32 and 226), Fundamental Duties (Article 51A, added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976) are non-justiciable — meaning no one can approach a court to enforce them, and there is no legal sanction or penalty prescribed in the Constitution for their violation.

    Parliament can enact laws to enforce them, but the Constitution itself does not provide such a process.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    Fundamental Duties are NOT correlative to legal duties.

    'Correlative' means corresponding or complementary.

    Legal duties are binding obligations enforceable by law (like paying taxes, obeying traffic rules).

    Fundamental Duties are moral obligations and civic ideals (like respecting the national flag, protecting the environment, developing scientific temper) — but they do not create legally enforceable obligations in the same way.

    They serve as reminders to citizens about their responsibilities but lack the legal teeth of actual legal duties.

    The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended their inclusion, but also suggested penalties for non-compliance — this recommendation was NOT accepted, reinforcing their non-enforceable nature.

    So neither statement is true.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Fundamental Duties)

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
37. 37.
    Indian Polity

    Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

    1. ALiberty of thought
    2. BEconomic liberty
    3. CLiberty of expression
    4. DLiberty of belief

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Economic liberty

    The Preamble to the Constitution of India secures to all citizens five specific types of liberty:

    liberty of THOUGHT,

    EXPRESSION,

    BELIEF,

    FAITH, and

    WORSHIP.

    You can remember these using the mnemonic 'TEBFW'.

    Option (a) Liberty of thought — IS in the Preamble.

    Option (c) Liberty of expression — IS in the Preamble.

    Option (d) Liberty of belief — IS in the Preamble.

    Option (b) Economic liberty — is NOT mentioned in the Preamble.

    While the Preamble does mention

    -'EQUALITY of status and of opportunity' and

    -'JUSTICE, social, economic and political',

    it does not explicitly mention 'economic liberty' as one of the liberties secured.

    The ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the Preamble were inspired by the French Revolution (1789).

    Students often confuse 'economic justice' (which IS mentioned) with 'economic liberty' (which is NOT).

    UPSC tests this precise distinction.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Preamble)

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
38. 38.
    Indian Polity

    In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

    1. ARights are correlative with Duties.
    2. BRights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
    3. CRights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
    4. DDuties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Rights are correlative with Duties.

    In political theory, rights and duties are correlative — meaning they are interconnected and mutually dependent.

    A right of one person implies a corresponding duty on others to respect that right.

    For example, your right to life implies a duty on others not to harm you; your right to free speech implies a duty on the state not to suppress your expression.

    Without duties, rights would be meaningless, and without rights, duties would have no purpose.

    Option (b) is wrong because rights are NOT purely personal and independent of society.

    Rights exist within a social context — they define the relationship between individuals and between individuals and the state.

    Robinson Crusoe on a deserted island has no 'rights' because there is no society to recognize them.

    Option (c) is wrong because it falsely suggests duties are unimportant for personality development.

    Both rights AND duties contribute to a citizen's growth.

    Option (d) is wrong because it falsely suggests rights are unimportant for state stability.

    Both are essential.

    The correct understanding is that rights and duties are two sides of the same coin — they coexist and reinforce each other.

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
39. 39.
    Indian Polity

    Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

    1. AEqual pay for equal work for both men and women
    2. BParticipation of workers in the management of industries
    3. CRight to work, education and public assistance
    4. DSecuring living wage and human conditions of work to workers

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Participation of workers in the management of industries

    The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 (often called the 'Mini-Constitution' because of the extensive changes it made) added four new Directive Principles to the original list:

    (1) Article 39 — To secure opportunities for healthy development of children.

    (2) Article 39A — To promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor.

    (3) Article 43A — To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.

    (4) Article 48A — To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife.

    Among the options given:

    • Option (a) 'Equal pay for equal work for both men and women' — was ALREADY in the original Constitution under Article 39(d). It was NOT added by the 42nd Amendment.

    • Option (b) 'Participation of workers in the management of industries' — this was ADDED by the 42nd Amendment as Article 43A. This is the correct answer.

    • Option (c) 'Right to work, education and public assistance' — was ALREADY in the original Constitution under Article 41.

    • Option (d) 'Securing living wage and human conditions of work' — was ALREADY in the original Constitution under Article 43.

    The trick in this question is knowing which DPSPs were original (1950) and which were added later (1976). A useful memory aid: the 42nd Amendment additions focused on newer concerns — children's welfare, free legal aid, worker participation in management, and environmental protection.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy)

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
40. 40.
    Indian Polity

    One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

    1. APrivileges
    2. BRestraints
    3. CCompetition
    4. DIdeology

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Privileges

    In political theory, the term 'equality' means the absence of special privileges to any section of society, and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination.

    When a society has equality, no group enjoys special advantages or preferential treatment over others based on birth, wealth, caste, religion, or social status.

    Option (a) 'Privileges' is correct because equality directly opposes the concept of privileges — special rights or advantages enjoyed by a particular group at the expense of others.

    If everyone is equal, no one has privileges.

    Option (b) 'Restraints' is wrong because equality does not mean absence of all restraints.

    Even in an equal society, laws and reasonable restrictions exist for everyone.

    Option (c) 'Competition' is wrong because equality does not eliminate competition — in fact, equality of opportunity encourages fair competition.

    Option (d) 'Ideology' is wrong because equality itself is an ideology, and equal societies can have multiple coexisting ideologies.

    (Source: Laxmikant)

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
41. 41.
    Indian Polity

    With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)', consider the following statements:

    1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
    2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
    3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D2 and 3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    Under the PBPT Act, the definition of a benami transaction has been widened to include transactions where the owner is NOT AWARE of the ownership or DENIES knowledge of it.

    So a transaction CAN be treated as benami even if the supposed owner claims ignorance.

    The Act specifically covers situations where:

    • (a) the transaction is made in a fictitious name,
    • (b) the owner is not aware or denies knowledge of the ownership, or
    • (c) the person providing the consideration (money) for the property is not traceable.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government without payment of any compensation.

    This is one of the strongest provisions of the Act — the government can seize benami properties and the original owner gets nothing in return.

    This makes the Act a powerful tool against black money and tax evasion.

    Statement 3 is incorrect:

    The Act DOES provide for an appellate mechanism.

    While the Act establishes authorities for investigation and adjudication (Initiating Officer, Approving Authority, and Adjudicating Authority), it ALSO provides for an Appellate Tribunal where aggrieved persons can appeal the decisions.

    The statement says 'does not provide for any appellate mechanism' which is factually wrong.

    The PBPT Act was originally enacted in 1988 but was significantly amended and strengthened in 2016 (renamed as Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act) as part of the government's drive against black money.

    So only statement 2 is correct.

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
42. 42.
    Indian Polity

    The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

    1. AThe Preamble
    2. BThe Fundamental Rights
    3. CThe Directive Principles of State Policy
    4. DThe Fundamental Duties

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) The Preamble

    The Preamble is considered the key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.

    This phrase comes from the Supreme Court's landmark judgment in the Berubari Union case (1960), where the Court observed that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution and is thus a key to the minds of the Constitution-makers.

    The Preamble encapsulates the fundamental values and philosophy that guided the framers —

    • Justice (social, economic, political)
    • Liberty (of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship)
    • Equality (of status and opportunity)
    • Fraternity (assuring dignity of the individual and unity of the nation).

    While Fundamental Rights (option b), Directive Principles (option c), and Fundamental Duties (option d) are all important parts of the Constitution, they deal with specific aspects.

    The Preamble, on the other hand, provides the overarching vision and summary of what the entire Constitution seeks to achieve.

    Think of it as the 'introduction' or 'mission statement' of the Constitution that reflects the collective aspirations and philosophy of those who drafted it.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Preamble)

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
43. 43.
    Indian Polity

    Consider the following statements:

    With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

    1. legislative function.
    2. executive function.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Neither statement is correct.

    The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36-51) are described in Article 37 as 'fundamental in the governance of the country' and it is 'the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws'.

    However, they are expressly made NON-JUSTICIABLE — meaning they cannot be enforced by any court.

    This means DPSPs do NOT constitute 'limitations' on either the legislative or executive function in the legal sense.

    Limitations on government power come from Fundamental Rights (Part III), which ARE justiciable and enforceable.

    • If Parliament passes a law that violates Fundamental Rights, courts can strike it down.
    • But if Parliament fails to implement a Directive Principle, no court can compel it to do so.

    DPSPs serve as guidelines and aspirational goals for the State, not as legal constraints.

    They tell the government what it SHOULD do, but they do not legally PREVENT it from doing (or not doing) anything.

    The question's framing — 'constitute limitations upon' — implies legal restrictions, which DPSPs are not.

    Some students confuse DPSPs with Fundamental Rights because both are in Part III and IV of the Constitution.

    The key distinction:

    • Fundamental Rights = justiciable = limitations on State power.
    • Directive Principles = non-justiciable = guidelines for State action, NOT limitations.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy)

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
44. 44.
    Indian Polity

    Which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. ARights are claims of the State against the citizens.
    2. BRights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
    3. CRights are claims of the citizens against the State.
    4. DRights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

    Rights are best understood as claims or entitlements that citizens can make against the State and society.

    This means citizens can demand certain things from the government (like freedom of speech, right to equality, right to education) and the State has a corresponding duty to protect and fulfil those claims.

    Option (a) is wrong because rights are claims OF citizens AGAINST the State, not claims of the State against citizens.

    Reversing the direction fundamentally changes the concept — if the State makes claims against citizens, those would be 'duties' or 'obligations', not rights.

    Option (b) is wrong because rights are NOT privileges.

    A privilege is a special advantage given to some people and not others. Rights, on the other hand, are universal entitlements available to ALL citizens equally. Calling rights 'privileges' diminishes their status and importance.

    Option (c) is correct because it accurately captures the direction (citizens → State) and the nature (claims/entitlements) of rights.

    Option (d) is wrong because rights are NOT limited to 'a few citizens against the many'.

    Rights are universal — they belong to ALL citizens, not just a select few. This question tests the foundational concept of what 'rights' mean in political theory.

    (Source: NCERT Class 9, Chapter 6 — Democratic Rights)

    Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
45. 45.
    Indian Polity

    Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?

    1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
    2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
    3. Dissolution of the local bodies

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B1 and 3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

    This question asks which consequences are NOT NECESSARILY (i.e., not always) the result of President's Rule.

    Note the careful wording — 'not necessarily' means it may or may not happen.

    Item 1 — Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly:

    This is NOT a necessary consequence.

    When President's Rule is imposed under Article 356, the President may either DISSOLVE or merely SUSPEND the State Legislative Assembly.

    • Suspension means the assembly is kept in abeyance and can be revived later;
    • Dissolution means it ceases to exist entirely and fresh elections must be held.

    Since dissolution is optional (suspension is also possible), item 1 is NOT a necessary consequence.

    Item 2 — Removal of the Council of Ministers:

    This IS a necessary consequence.

    When President's Rule is imposed, the state Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister is ALWAYS dismissed.

    The Governor then administers the state on behalf of the President with the help of advisors.

    This is always done — it is the very essence of President's Rule.

    Item 3 — Dissolution of local bodies:

    This is NOT a consequence of President's Rule at all.

    Local bodies (Panchayats, Municipalities) function under separate constitutional provisions (73rd and 74th Amendments) and are not dissolved simply because President's Rule is imposed in the state.

    So items 1 and 3 are NOT necessarily consequences, while item 2 IS a necessary consequence.

    The answer is (b) 1 and 3 only.

    (Source: Laxmikant, Chapter on Emergency Provisions)

    Key learnings →Relations Between Pillars
46. 46.
    Indian Economy

    What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

    1. To supply credit to small business units
    2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
    3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    According to the RBI guidelines for Small Finance Banks (SFBs), their objectives are to further financial inclusion by:

    (i) provision of savings vehicles (accepting deposits), and

    (ii) supply of credit to small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries, and other unorganised sector entities — through high technology, low-cost operations.

    Statements 1 and 2 directly match these stated objectives.

    Statement 3 — 'To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas' — sounds appealing and related to financial inclusion, but it is NOT a specifically stated objective of SFBs in the RBI framework.

    SFBs are meant to serve existing underserved segments (small businesses, small farmers) with credit and savings facilities, not specifically to encourage young entrepreneurs in rural areas.

    UPSC often includes such 'sounds right but isn't officially stated' options to test whether you know the exact framework vs. making reasonable-sounding assumptions.

    Additional facts about SFBs:

    • They must maintain CRR and SLR like other commercial banks;
    • 75% of their lending must be to priority sectors;
    • they cannot lend to big corporates;
    • and the minimum paid-up capital required is Rs. 100 crore.

    So only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
47. 47.
    Indian Economy

    The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' seen in the news refers to

    1. AASEAN
    2. BBRICS
    3. CEU
    4. DG20

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) EU

    The Digital Single Market Strategy is an initiative of the European Union (EU), adopted on 6 May 2015.

    It includes 16 specific initiatives aimed at opening up digital opportunities for people and businesses across Europe, and enhancing Europe's position as a world leader in the digital economy.

    The strategy focuses on three pillars:

    • (1) Better access for consumers and businesses to digital goods and services across Europe,
    • (2) Creating the right conditions for digital networks and services to flourish, and
    • (3) Maximising the growth potential of the digital economy.

    The EU published a mid-term review of this strategy in May 2017.

    Option (a) ASEAN, option (b) BRICS, and option (d) G20 — while all these groupings may discuss digital economy issues in their summits, the specific term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' belongs exclusively to the EU.

    The word 'Single Market' is a strong clue — the EU is the only grouping among the options that operates an actual 'single market' (common market with free movement of goods, services, capital, and people).

    Neither ASEAN, BRICS, nor G20 has a comparable integrated single market arrangement.

    Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
48. 48.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    1. India has ratified to Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
    2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
    3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B1 and 3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    Statement 1 is correct:

    India ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of the WTO in April 2016.

    India was among the countries that played an important role in the negotiations.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    The TFA was indeed a part of the WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.

    It was agreed upon at the WTO's 9th Ministerial Conference held in Bali, Indonesia in December 2013.

    The TFA is the WTO's first-ever multilateral accord and it aims to simplify customs regulations, expedite the movement, release, and clearance of goods across borders, and reduce trade costs.

    Statement 3 is incorrect:

    The TFA came into force on 22 February 2017, NOT in January 2016.

    It entered into force after two-thirds of WTO members completed their domestic ratification procedures.

    The date difference (February 2017 vs January 2016) is a factual detail that UPSC uses to test precision in knowledge.

    So statements 1 and 2 are correct, but statement 3 is wrong.

    The answer is (a).

    Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
49. 49.
    Indian Economy

    The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

    1. ADeveloping solar power production in our country
    2. BGranting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in our country
    3. CExporting our food products to other countries
    4. DPermitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Developing solar power production in our country

    The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' (DCR) was prominently in the news in relation to India's solar power production under the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (JNNSM).

    The Indian government mandated that a certain percentage of solar cells and modules used in government-funded solar projects must be manufactured domestically (in India) rather than imported.

    This was intended to boost India's domestic solar manufacturing industry.

    However, this DCR policy led to a trade dispute: the United States filed a complaint against India at the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 2013, arguing that the DCR violated WTO rules on free trade by discriminating against imported solar equipment.

    The WTO ruled against India, saying the DCR was inconsistent with WTO obligations under the Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMs) and the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).

    India appealed but the ruling was upheld.

    Option (b) is wrong — DCR in this context has nothing to do with licensing foreign TV channels.

    Option (c) is wrong — it is not related to food export regulations.

    Option (d) is wrong — it is not about foreign educational institutions.

    Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
50. 50.
    Indian Economy

    Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?

    1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
    2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased.
    3. FDI inflows increased.
    4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. A1 and 4 only
    2. B2, 3 and 4 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2, 3 and 4

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    After liberalization in 1991, the share of agriculture in India's GDP actually DECLINED, not increased.

    Agriculture contributed about 29% of GDP in 1991, but it has steadily fallen to around 15-17% in recent years.

    This is because the services and industrial sectors grew much faster than agriculture.

    This is a common UPSC trap — the absolute output of agriculture may have increased, but its SHARE in total GDP decreased.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    India's share in world trade increased after liberalization as trade barriers were reduced and the economy opened up to global markets.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    Before 1991, foreign investment in India was negligible (only $74 million in the first year of reform).

    FDI inflows increased dramatically after liberalization — reaching $43.4 billion in 2008 at its peak, with cumulative FDI of $371 billion by March 2016.

    Statement 4 is correct:

    India's forex reserves were at a dismal $5.8 billion in 1991 (which was one of the main reasons for the economic crisis that triggered reforms).

    By 2016, reserves had grown to over $360 billion — an enormous increase.

    So statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct, and statement 1 is wrong, making option (b) the correct answer.

    Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
51. 51.
    Indian Economy

    Which of the following are the objectives of 'National Nutrition Mission'?

    1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
    2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
    3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
    4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B1, 2 and 3 only
    3. C1, 2 and 4 only
    4. D3 and 4 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    The National Nutrition Mission has two main components:

    (1) Information, Education and Communication (IEC) Campaign against malnutrition, and

    (2) Multi-sectoral Nutrition Programme.

    Its key objectives include:

    • creating awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers (statement 1),
    • promoting healthy lactating practices and importance of balanced nutrition,
    • improving maternal and child under-nutrition in 200 high-burden districts,
    • preventing and reducing under-nutrition among children below 3 years, and
    • reducing the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls, and women (statement 2).

    Statement 1 is correct: Awareness creation about malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers is a core objective.

    Statement 2 is correct: Reducing anaemia is also a stated objective of the mission.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: While promoting millets, coarse cereals, and unpolished rice may be a good nutrition practice, it is NOT a specifically listed objective of the National Nutrition Mission. This may be confused with other government initiatives related to millets (like the Year of Millets).

    Statement 4 is incorrect: Similarly, promoting consumption of poultry eggs is NOT a stated objective of the mission. Some states have independently introduced egg distribution in school meals (like mid-day meals), but this is not part of the National Nutrition Mission's objectives.

    UPSC often includes options that sound nutritionally logical but are not officially part of the stated scheme objectives.

    So only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
52. 52.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following in respect of 'National Career Services':

    1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
    2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 and 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The National Career Service (NCS) is an initiative of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, NOT the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT).

    This is a factual detail that UPSC tests to check if you know which ministry is responsible for which scheme.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    NCS was launched in Mission Mode to improve employment opportunities.

    Its main stakeholders include not just educated youth, but also:

    • unemployed candidates seeking jobs
    • students seeking career counselling
    • candidates seeking vocational/occupational guidance
    • illiterate and under-privileged sections of society
    • blue-collar workers
    • persons with disabilities (PWDs)
    • ex-servicemen
    • senior citizens

    The phrase 'uneducated youth' in statement 2 is broadly correct because the scheme covers even illiterate and under-privileged job seekers.

    So only statement 2 is correct.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
53. 53.
    Indian Economy

    What is the purpose of 'Vidyanjali Yojana'?

    1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.

    2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.

    3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C1 and 2 only
    4. D2 and 3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 2 only

    Only statement 2 correctly describes Vidyanjali Yojana.

    The scheme was launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education) to boost the education system in government schools by bringing in volunteer teachers and community support.

    Key features:

    • The volunteers' responsibility is towards the overall development of the child — not primarily academics.
    • Volunteer services are used for developing skills like public speaking, creative writing, counselling, music, and dance.
    • Importantly, volunteer teachers do NOT replace regular, professionally qualified teachers in government schools.

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    Vidyanjali has nothing to do with enabling foreign educational institutions to open campuses in India. That is a completely different policy discussion.

    Statement 3 is incorrect:

    Vidyanjali is NOT about encouraging voluntary monetary contributions for infrastructure improvement.

    It focuses on human resource support (volunteers giving their time and skills), not financial contributions for building infrastructure.

    The scheme is about 'people participation' and 'community engagement' in government schools, not money-driven infrastructure development.

    So only statement 2 is correct.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
54. 54.
    Indian Economy

    What is the aim of the programme 'Unnat Bharat Abhiyan'?

    1. AAchieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government's education system and local communities.
    2. BConnecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
    3. CStrengthening India's scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
    4. DDeveloping human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.

    Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is a programme launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of HRD) in collaboration with Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), National Institutes of Technology (NITs), and Indian Institutes of Science Education & Research (IISERs).

    Its specific aim is to connect institutions of higher education with local communities (especially rural areas) to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.

    For example, an IIT might adopt nearby villages and work with the community to solve local problems like:

    • water purification
    • sanitation
    • road connectivity
    • energy access

    using technology suited to local conditions.

    Option (a) is wrong — achieving 100% literacy through voluntary organizations is not the aim of this programme.

    Option (c) is wrong — strengthening scientific research institutions is a broader goal of science policy, not the specific design of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan.

    Option (d) is wrong — allocating special funds for health care and skill development of the poor describes a social welfare programme, not Unnat Bharat Abhiyan.

    The key phrase to remember: Unnat Bharat Abhiyan = Higher education institutions + local communities + appropriate technologies for development.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
55. 55.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    1. National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
    2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Both statements are correct.

    Statement 1 is correct:

    The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an umbrella organisation for all retail payment systems in India.

    It was set up with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA).

    One of NPCI's core objectives is to facilitate an affordable payment mechanism to benefit the common man across the country and help financial inclusion — by making digital payments accessible even to the unbanked and underbanked population.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    NPCI launched RuPay, India's own domestic card payment network, as an alternative to international card networks like Visa and Mastercard.

    RuPay cards are significantly cheaper to process (lower transaction fees), which makes them ideal for financial inclusion, particularly under schemes like Jan Dhan Yojana where RuPay debit cards are issued to all account holders.

    Besides RuPay, NPCI also operates other important products like:

    • UPI (Unified Payments Interface)
    • BHIM app
    • IMPS (Immediate Payment Service)
    • NACH (National Automated Clearing House)
    • AePS (Aadhaar-enabled Payment System)

    NPCI has been central to India's digital payment revolution.

    So both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
56. 56.
    Indian Economy

    Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)', recently seen in the news?

    1. AIt is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
    2. BIt is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
    3. CIt is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
    4. DIt is an important provision in 'The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code' recently implemented by the Government.

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.

    S4A (Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets) is a scheme introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to deal with the problem of large stressed loans (NPAs/bad loans) in the banking sector.

    Under S4A, the RBI determines the sustainable debt level for a stressed borrower and then divides (bifurcates) the outstanding debt into two parts:

    • (1) Sustainable debt — the portion that the borrower can reasonably service, and
    • (2) The remaining debt — which is converted into equity or quasi-equity instruments, giving lenders a potential upside when the borrower recovers.

    Option (a) is wrong because S4A has nothing to do with ecological costs of development.

    Option (c) is wrong because it is not a disinvestment plan for PSUs.

    Option (d) is wrong because S4A is not a provision under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code — it is a separate RBI scheme.

    The key association to remember: S4A = RBI scheme + stressed assets/NPA resolution + debt restructuring for large corporate borrowers.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
57. 57.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to 'National Investment and Infrastructure Fund', which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
    2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4,00,000 crore at present.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) was created by the Government of India (announced in Union Budget 2015-16) for enhancing infrastructure financing.

    Its Governing Council is chaired by the Finance Minister.

    It is NOT an organ of NITI Aayog — it is a separate entity set up as a trust.

    Statement 2 is also incorrect:

    This is a classic example of UPSC using 'deceptive presentation' to test whether you have deep knowledge or just superficial recall.

    The proposed corpus of NIIF is Rs. 40,000 crore (approximately USD 6 billion), but the question deliberately inflates the figure to Rs. 4,00,000 crore (ten times the actual amount) to catch students who have only vague familiarity with the number.

    Since both statements are wrong, the answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
58. 58.
    Indian Economy

    The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an

    1. AASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
    2. BWorld Bank collaboration that facilities the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnership (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
    3. CCollaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
    4. DUNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the World.

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) World Bank collaboration that facilities the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnership (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.

    The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a World Bank-led platform designed to help governments prepare and structure complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnership (PPP) projects.

    Its goal is to make these projects attractive enough ('bankable') so that private sector and institutional investor capital can be mobilized.

    Canada is co-chair of GIF's Governing Council along with the World Bank Group.

    Option (a) is wrong because GIF is not an ASEAN initiative nor financed by ADB.

    Option (c) is wrong because it is not a collaboration among major banks working with the OECD.

    Option (d) is wrong because GIF is not a UNCTAD-funded initiative.

    The key association to remember is:

    GIF = World Bank + PPPs + private capital mobilization for infrastructure.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
59. 59.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to 'National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)', which of the statements given below is/are correct?

    1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
    2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.

    Select the correct answer using the code give below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    Under NSQF, a learner can acquire certification for competency through formal, non-formal, AND informal learning — not only through formal learning.

    This is a key feature of NSQF, as it recognizes that people can gain skills through work experience, self-learning, or apprenticeships, not just through schools and colleges.

    The word 'only' in the statement makes it wrong.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    One of the main expected outcomes of NSQF is to enable mobility between vocational education and general education.

    The framework provides for multiple pathways — both horizontal and vertical — within vocational education and training, and also between vocational education, technical education, and general education.

    This means a student who has taken a vocational course can transition to a general education stream and vice versa, linking one level of learning to another higher level.

    So only statement 2 is correct.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
60. 60.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    The nation-wide 'Soil Health Card Scheme' aims at

    1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
    2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
    3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 3 only

    The Soil Health Card Scheme was launched by the central government in February 2015.

    Under this scheme, a 'Soil Health Card' is issued to every farmer, which carries crop-wise recommendations of nutrients and fertilizers required for that specific farm based on soil testing.

    The primary aim is to help farmers improve productivity through judicious (wise and balanced) use of fertilizers and inputs.

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    • The scheme has nothing to do with expanding cultivable area under irrigation.
    • It is about soil testing and nutrient management, not irrigation expansion.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    • The scheme is NOT designed to help banks assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers.
    • This is a common distractor — the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme is related to farm loans, not the Soil Health Card.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    • The primary objective of the scheme is to check the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
    • By telling farmers exactly what nutrients their soil needs and in what quantity, the scheme prevents indiscriminate and excessive use of chemical fertilizers, which not only wastes money but also degrades soil health over time.

    So only statement 3 is correct.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
61. 61.
    Indian Economy

    Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

    1. AResident Indian citizens only
    2. BPersons of age from 21 to 55 only
    3. CAll State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments
    4. DAll Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments

    The National Pension System (NPS) has different eligibility criteria for different categories of people, and this question tests precision in that knowledge.

    Option (a) is incorrect:
    NPS is not limited to 'resident Indian citizens only'.
    NRIs (Non-Resident Indians) were also allowed to open NPS accounts (this was enabled through online registration).

    Option (b) is incorrect:
    The age criteria for joining NPS is 18 to 60 years (later extended to 65), NOT 21 to 55.
    This is an example of UPSC's 'deceptive presentation' technique — giving a plausible-sounding but wrong age range.

    Option (c) is correct:
    NPS is applicable to all State Government employees joining services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments.
    Each state government issued its own notification adopting NPS for new employees, and the effective date varies from state to state.

    Option (d) is incorrect:
    While NPS is applicable to all Central Government employees joining service on or after 1st January 2004 (not 1st April 2004), it explicitly EXCLUDES Armed Forces personnel.
    The Armed Forces have their own separate pension arrangements.
    The question includes 'Armed Forces' in option (d) to make it incorrect.

    Key facts:

    • NPS for Central Government = from 1 Jan 2004 (excluding Armed Forces)
    • NPS for State Government = from the date of respective state notification
    • NPS for general public = age 18-60 (later 65)
    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
62. 62.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
    2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issues by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Statement 1 is correct:

    In 2010, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) made its certification mandatory for all types of automotive tyres and tubes.

    This means no automotive tyre or tube can be sold in India without BIS certification (the ISI mark).

    BIS is India's national standards body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, and it sets quality standards for various products.

    While BIS certification is voluntary for many products, it is mandatory for certain items that affect public safety — including:

    • automotive tyres and tubes
    • cement
    • LPG cylinders
    • packaged drinking water
    • electrical appliances
    • others.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    AGMARK is NOT a certification mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

    AGMARK is a quality certification mark for agricultural products in India, and it is entirely an Indian system.

    It is legally enforced under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 (amended in 1986) by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI), which is an agency under the Government of India's Ministry of Agriculture.

    The FAO is a United Nations agency and has no role in issuing AGMARK certification.

    This is a factual trap — AGMARK sounds like it could be international because of 'AG' (agriculture), but it is purely domestic.

    Key associations:

    • BIS = Indian standards body = ISI mark;
    • AGMARK = Indian agricultural quality mark = DMI.

    So only statement 1 is correct.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
63. 63.
    Indian Economy

    What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the 'National Agriculture Market' scheme?

    1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
    2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Both statements are correct.

    Statement 1 is correct:

    The National Agriculture Market (NAM or e-NAM) is indeed a pan-India electronic trading portal that networks the existing APMC (Agricultural Produce Market Committee) mandis across the country to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.

    Before e-NAM, each state and even each district had its own APMC mandi with different rules, fees, and licensing requirements, which fragmented the agricultural market and prevented farmers from accessing buyers in other regions.

    e-NAM connects these mandis through a common online platform.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    One of the key advantages of e-NAM is that it provides farmers access to a nationwide market with transparent price discovery based on actual demand, supply, and quality of produce.

    Before e-NAM, farmers were often forced to sell at whatever price the local trader offered because they had no visibility into prices in other markets.

    With e-NAM, farmers can see prices across multiple mandis in real-time and get prices commensurate with (proportional to) the quality of their produce.

    The platform also promotes transparency in the auction process and enables online payment.

    Both statements describe genuine advantages of the NAM scheme.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
64. 64.
    Indian Economy

    Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the 'Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?

    1. AMobile wallets with not be necessary for online payments.
    2. BDigital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.
    3. CFDI inflows will drastically increase.
    4. DDirect transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Mobile wallets with not be necessary for online payments.

    UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is a real-time payment system developed by NPCI that allows instant money transfer between any two bank accounts using a smartphone.

    The most likely and immediate consequence of UPI is that mobile wallets become unnecessary for online payments.

    Before UPI, if you wanted to make a digital payment without entering credit/debit card details or using net banking, you needed a mobile wallet (like Paytm Wallet, PhonePe Wallet, etc.) where you first loaded money and then spent it.

    With UPI, payments go directly from your bank account to the recipient's bank account — no need for an intermediary wallet layer.

    All you need is a UPI ID (like yourname@bankname) and a PIN.

    Option (b) is exaggerated — digital currency replacing physical currency 'totally' in 'two decades' is an unrealistic claim; UPI promotes digital payments but cannot eliminate physical currency entirely.

    Option (c) is wrong — UPI is a domestic payment system and has no direct mechanism to 'drastically increase' FDI inflows, which depend on investment climate, policies, and global factors.

    Option (d) is wrong — while UPI can be used for DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer), the primary DBT infrastructure is Aadhaar-linked bank accounts, not UPI specifically.

    So option (a) is the most realistic and immediate consequence.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
65. 65.
    Indian Economy

    Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme' is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to

    1. ACertifying the skills acquire by construction workers through traditional channels.
    2. BEnrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
    3. CReserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
    4. DCertifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Certifying the skills acquire by construction workers through traditional channels.

    Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) is an assessment and certification process for skills that individuals have already acquired through informal means — such as work experience, on-the-job observation, self-learning, or traditional apprenticeship channels — rather than through formal classroom training.

    The key idea is that many workers in India (especially in the unorganised sector like construction, plumbing, carpentry, tailoring, etc.) possess valuable skills learned through years of practice but have no formal certificate to prove it.

    RPL assesses these existing skills against industry standards and provides a government-recognized certificate, giving the worker confidence, social recognition, better employability, and often a financial reward.

    Option (a) is the best fit because it describes certifying skills acquired through 'traditional channels' (informal learning), which is exactly what RPL does.

    Option (b) is wrong — RPL is not about enrolling people in university distance learning programmes.

    Option (c) is wrong — RPL is not about reserving jobs in PSUs.

    Option (d) is a common trap — RPL is NOT about certifying skills of formal trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. It is specifically for people who already HAVE skills gained OUTSIDE of formal training programmes.

    RPL was launched under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) 2.0 framework.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
66. 66.
    Indian Economy

    With reference to the 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements:

    1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
    2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Both statements are correct.

    Statement 1 is correct:

    The Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry, represented by three premier industry associations:

    • ASSOCHAM (Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India)
    • CII (Confederation of Indian Industry)
    • FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry).

    QCI was established in 1997 to establish and operate a national accreditation structure and promote quality through the National Quality Campaign. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, serves as the nodal ministry for QCI.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government. This unique governance structure — where the PM appoints the chairman based on industry recommendation — reflects the joint government-industry nature of QCI. It ensures that QCI remains independent and has credibility with both government and private sector stakeholders.

    QCI operates through its constituent boards:

    • National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB)
    • National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL)
    • National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Healthcare Providers (NABH)
    • National Accreditation Board for Education and Training (NABET).

    So both statements are correct.

    Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
67. 67.
    Indian Economy

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the 'Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

    1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
    2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
    3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C3 only
    4. D2 and 3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Statement 1 is correct:

    The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted by amending the RBI Act, 1934 through the Finance Act, 2016.

    Its primary function is to determine the benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate) required to achieve the inflation target set by the government.

    Before the MPC was established, the RBI Governor alone decided interest rates.

    Now, the MPC brings a more institutional and transparent decision-making process.

    Statement 2 is incorrect on multiple counts:

    The MPC is a 6-member body, NOT 12-member.

    It consists of:

    • (a) RBI Governor (Chairperson),
    • (b) Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy,
    • (c) One officer of the RBI nominated by the Central Board,
    • (d) Three external members appointed by the Central Government.

    Also, the external members are appointed for a period of 4 years and are not eligible for reappointment — the committee is NOT reconstituted every year.

    Statement 3 is incorrect:

    The MPC functions under the chairmanship of the RBI Governor, NOT the Union Finance Minister.

    This is crucial for maintaining the independence of monetary policy from fiscal policy.

    Decisions are taken by majority vote, and in case of a tie, the Governor has a casting vote.

    The MPC must meet at least four times a year and the minutes of its meetings are published 14 days after each meeting.

    So only statement 1 is correct.

    Key learnings →Money, Inflation, and Monetary Policy
68. 68.
    Indian Economy

    What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing 'Goods and Services Tax (GST)'?

    1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.

    2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.

    3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Statement 1 is correct:

    GST (Goods and Services Tax) is one indirect tax for the whole nation.

    Before GST, India had a complex web of indirect taxes — Central Excise, Service Tax, VAT, CST, Entry Tax, Octroi, etc. — collected by both central and state governments.

    This fragmented system created barriers to inter-state trade and effectively divided India into multiple markets.

    GST replaced all these with a single unified tax, thereby creating a single common market across India.

    This is the most direct and well-established advantage of GST.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    GST is an indirect tax reform that simplifies domestic taxation.

    It has no direct mechanism to 'drastically reduce' the Current Account Deficit (CAD), which depends on the balance between exports and imports of goods, services, and income flows.

    While GST may improve export competitiveness marginally by removing cascading taxes, saying it will 'drastically' reduce CAD is an exaggeration.

    Statement 3 is incorrect:

    While GST is expected to boost economic growth by improving ease of doing business, reducing tax cascading, and improving compliance, claiming it will 'enormously' increase India's economy enough to 'overtake China in the near future' is a wild exaggeration with no basis.

    UPSC often includes such overstated options to test whether students can distinguish realistic benefits from wishful thinking.

    So only statement 1 is correct.

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
69. 69.
    Indian Economy

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
    2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    Tax revenue as a percentage of GDP has NOT steadily increased over the last decade.

    The keyword here is 'steadily' — meaning consistently year after year without interruption.

    In reality, tax-to-GDP ratio fluctuated during this period.

    During the global recession of 2008-09, the government reduced tax rates (service tax, income tax, corporation tax, excise duty) to boost aggregate demand and protect the economy.

    These rate cuts caused the tax-to-GDP ratio to dip.

    While it recovered in some years, the trend was NOT a steady upward movement.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP has also NOT steadily increased over the last decade.

    Again, the word 'steadily' is key.

    The fiscal deficit spiked during 2008-09 due to the stimulus packages during the global financial crisis, but subsequently the government pursued fiscal consolidation (reducing the deficit).

    The fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP has generally been on a declining trend in recent years (from about 6% in 2009-10 to around 3.5% by 2016-17), with some fluctuations.

    So it did not steadily increase either.

    The key lesson from this question: Be alert to words like 'steadily', 'enormously', 'always', 'never' in UPSC questions — they often make otherwise plausible statements incorrect.

    (Source: Economic Survey 2014-15 and subsequent budgets)

    Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
70. 70.
    Environment

    If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

    1. ABhitarkanika Mangroves
    2. BChambal River
    3. CPulicat Lake
    4. DDeepor Beel

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Chambal River

    The Chambal River is the best-known natural habitat for gharials in India.

    The National Chambal Sanctuary (also called the National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary) is a tri-state protected area spread across Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh, established specifically for the conservation of the critically endangered gharial (a type of crocodilian with a distinctive long, thin snout), the red-crowned roof turtle, and the endangered Ganges river dolphin.

    Bhitarkanika Mangroves (Odisha) are known for saltwater crocodiles, not gharials.

    Pulicat Lake (Andhra Pradesh/Tamil Nadu) is known for flamingos and other migratory birds.

    Deepor Beel (Assam) is a Ramsar wetland known for its avian diversity.

    The gharial population in the Chambal has been the subject of conservation news in recent years.

    (Source: NCERT Contemporary India-II, Chapter 2)

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
71. 71.
    Environment

    The term 'M-STrIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

    1. ACaptive breeding of Wild Fauna
    2. BMaintenance of Tiger Reserves
    3. CIndigenous Satellite Navigation System
    4. DSecurity of National Highways

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves

    M-STrIPES stands for 'Monitoring System for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status'.

    It is a software-based patrolling and monitoring system launched by the Indian Government in 2010 for use in tiger reserves across India.

    The system uses GPS-enabled devices (smartphones/tablets) to help field staff and forest managers track patrol routes, record wildlife sightings, monitor threats like poaching, and assess the intensity and spatial coverage of anti-poaching patrols using a Geographic Information System (GIS) platform.

    Think of it as a high-tech upgrade to traditional foot-patrolling in tiger reserves.

    The mobile app version was later officially launched at Corbett Tiger Reserve.

    Option (a) is wrong — M-STrIPES is not about captive breeding of wild fauna.

    Option (c) is wrong — it has nothing to do with satellite navigation systems (India's satellite navigation system is NavIC/IRNSS).

    Option (d) is wrong — it has nothing to do with highway security. The name itself is a clue: 'STrIPES' clearly hints at tigers.

    Key association:

    • M-STrIPES = Tiger monitoring
    • GPS + GIS patrolling in tiger reserves.
    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
72. 72.
    Environment

    In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?

    1. AIt enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
    2. BIt no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and not it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
    3. CIt is endemic to a particular region of India.
    4. DBoth (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.

    The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 has six schedules that provide varying degrees of protection to listed species.

    Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II provide the highest level of protection — offences under these schedules attract the most severe penalties.

    The tiger is listed under Schedule I.

    So if a tortoise is also declared protected under Schedule I, it enjoys the SAME level of legal protection as the tiger.

    Both would be subject to the same strict penalties for hunting, poaching, or trade.

    Option (b) is wrong: Being listed under Schedule I does NOT mean the species no longer exists in the wild or that its extinction is inevitable.

    Many Schedule I species have viable wild populations.

    The listing simply means the species deserves the highest legal protection.

    Option (c) is wrong: Schedule I listing does NOT imply that the species is endemic to a particular region of India.

    Endemism (being found only in a specific area) is a biological characteristic unrelated to legal protection status.

    A species can be endemic but listed under any schedule, or not endemic but still under Schedule I.

    Option (d) is wrong because both (b) and (c) are individually incorrect.

    Key concept: Schedule I = highest protection = same level as tiger.

    (Source: NCERT Contemporary India-II, Chapter 2)

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
73. 73.
    Environment

    Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?

    1. ACorbett National Park
    2. BKuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
    3. CMudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
    4. DSariska National Park

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary

    Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary (now Kuno National Park) in Madhya Pradesh was approved by an expert committee of the Ministry of Environment as the second home for Asiatic lions, which are currently found only in and around Gir National Park in Gujarat.

    The rationale is simple: having all Asiatic lions in one location (Gir) makes the entire species vulnerable to a single catastrophic event like an epidemic, forest fire, or natural disaster.

    Creating a second viable population elsewhere would serve as an 'insurance' against extinction.

    Kuno Palpur was selected because of its suitable habitat, prey base, and proximity to other protected areas.

    However, the Gujarat government has been reluctant to share its lions, citing various concerns and demanding that multiple studies be completed first.

    The Supreme Court in 2013 directed the translocation of some lions to Kuno, but it has faced political and bureaucratic delays.

    Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand) is primarily a tiger reserve.

    Mudumalai (Tamil Nadu) is known for elephants and tigers.

    Sariska (Rajasthan) is associated with tiger reintroduction.

    None of these were the proposed site for lion translocation.

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
74. 74.
    Environment

    According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

    1. Gharial
    2. Indian wild ass
    3. Wild buffalo

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    All three animals are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which provides the highest level of legal protection:

    (1) Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) — a critically endangered crocodilian found mainly in the Chambal, Girwa, and Gandak rivers.

    (2) Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) — an endangered species found primarily in the Rann of Kutch, Gujarat (Little Rann of Kutch Wild Ass Sanctuary).

    (3) Wild Buffalo (Bubalus arnee) — an endangered species with small populations in Assam, Chhattisgarh, and a few other states.

    Under Schedule I, hunting of these animals is absolutely prohibited except under very special circumstances provided by law (such as when an animal becomes a danger to human life, or for scientific research with specific permission).

    The penalties for offences involving Schedule I species are the most severe under the Act.

    Some students may doubt whether all three are under Schedule I, but the key insight is that all three are endangered or critically endangered species, which makes it logical that they would receive the highest protection.

    When in doubt in such questions, if all listed species are clearly threatened, choosing 'all of the above' is often the safer bet.

    So all three (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
75. 75.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

    1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
    2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    TRAFFIC is NOT a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

    TRAFFIC is a non-governmental organization (NGO) that was established in 1976 jointly by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) and WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature).

    It is the world's leading wildlife trade monitoring network.

    While TRAFFIC works closely with CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) and various UN agencies, it is an independent NGO, not a UN bureau.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    TRAFFIC's mission is exactly to ensure that trade in wild animals and plants is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

    It works globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.

    TRAFFIC monitors wildlife trade, researches trade routes and volumes, identifies illegal trade patterns, and provides data and expertise to governments and international bodies like CITES to help regulate wildlife trade effectively.

    The key facts to remember:

    • TRAFFIC = founded by IUCN + WWF in 1976
    • = wildlife trade monitoring network
    • = NOT a UN body.

    It is important not to confuse TRAFFIC with UNEP (which is a UN programme) or CITES (which is an international treaty/convention).

    Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
76. 76.
    Environment

    With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
    2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
    3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    Statement 1 is correct:

    The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, especially Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and Small Island Developing States (SIDS).

    Statement 2 is correct:

    Under one of its pillars, the GCCA acts as a source of technical and financial support for the world's most climate-vulnerable countries, helping them integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.

    Statement 3 is incorrect:

    This is a common trap. The World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD) work together on the Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHGP), which helps companies measure and manage their carbon emissions — this is a completely different initiative and has nothing to do with GCCA.

    So only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Key learnings →Climate Change
77. 77.
    Environment

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G2O group of countries.
    2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) is NOT a G20 initiative.

    It was founded in 2012 by the governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States, along with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

    It is a voluntary partnership of governments, intergovernmental organizations, businesses, and civil society.

    As of now, it has 53 country partners, 17 international governmental organizations, and 45 NGO partners.

    Notably, India is NOT a partner country, though The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is a partner NGO since 2015.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    CCAC focuses specifically on short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs) — primarily methane, black carbon (soot), and hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

    These pollutants have a relatively short atmospheric lifetime compared to CO2 but have a powerful warming effect.

    Reducing these pollutants can deliver quick climate benefits.

    So only statement 2 is correct.

    Key learnings →Climate Change
78. 78.
    Environment

    Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

    1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
    2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
    3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.

    Select the correct using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

    Statements 1 and 3 are correct, but statement 2 is not.

    Statement 1 is correct:

    Butterflies are important pollinators for many flowering plants.

    While bees are the most well-known pollinators, butterflies also play a significant role — they visit flowers to feed on nectar and in the process transfer pollen from one flower to another.

    Some plants depend specifically on butterfly pollination.

    If butterfly populations crash, these plants would face reduced pollination, leading to lower seed production and potentially declining plant populations.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    There is no established scientific link between a decline in butterfly populations and an increase in fungal infections in cultivated plants.

    Butterflies do not control fungal pathogens — that role belongs to other organisms like beneficial soil microbes, predatory insects, or is managed through agricultural practices.

    This statement is a distractor that sounds plausible but has no ecological basis.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    Butterflies occupy an important position in food chains as prey for many predators.

    Wasps (some species are parasitoids of butterfly larvae/caterpillars), spiders (which catch butterflies in webs), and birds (many species feed on butterflies and caterpillars) all depend on butterflies as a food source.

    A massive decline in butterfly populations would reduce the food available for these predators, potentially causing their populations to fall as well — this is the cascading 'butterfly effect' in ecological food webs.

    So statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
79. 79.
    Environment

    Which of the following statements can help in water conservation in agriculture?

    1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
    2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
    3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    All three practices help in water conservation in agriculture:

    (1) Reduced or zero tillage: No-till farming (also called zero tillage or direct drilling) is a way of growing crops without disturbing the soil through ploughing.

    This increases the amount of water that infiltrates into the soil, increases organic matter retention, and reduces surface evaporation — all of which conserve water.

    (2) Applying gypsum before irrigating: Gypsum (calcium sulphate) improves soil structure, especially in sodic soils.

    It improves the ability of soil to drain properly and not become waterlogged, thus increasing the water-use efficiency of crops.

    It helps water penetrate deeper into the soil rather than running off the surface.

    (3) Allowing crop residue to remain in the field: Crop residue left on the field surface acts as mulch — it covers the soil, reduces direct evaporation of moisture from the soil surface, moderates soil temperature, and helps retain soil moisture for longer periods.

    Many students doubt statement 2 (gypsum) because gypsum is not commonly associated with water conservation in standard textbooks.

    However, gypsum's role in improving soil drainage and water-use efficiency is well-documented in agricultural science.

    So all three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

    Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
80. 80.
    Environment

    It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

    1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
    2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuels production requires high level of expertise/ technology until the construction is complete.
    3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The statement claims algae-based biofuel production is possible 'in seas only and not on continents' — this is factually wrong.

    Algae can be grown both in sea-based (marine) systems AND on land (continental) systems.

    Land-based systems include open ponds, raceway ponds, and closed photobioreactors, and algae can grow on marginal or non-crop land using brackish, saline, or even polluted water.

    In fact, land-based systems are currently more developed and commercially viable than sea-based systems.

    So the limitation described in statement 1 does not exist.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    Setting up and engineering algae-based biofuel (ABB) production facilities requires a high level of technical expertise and specialized knowledge in areas like:

    • algae strain selection
    • cultivation systems
    • harvesting
    • oil extraction
    • fuel processing

    This expertise barrier is a genuine limitation for developing countries that may lack the technical human resources and institutional capacity needed during the construction and initial operation phase.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    Economically viable algal biofuel production requires large-scale facilities (to achieve economies of scale), which demand significant capital investment.

    These large facilities may raise ecological concerns:

    • water usage
    • nutrient runoff
    • land use changes
    • potential invasiveness of cultivated algae strains

    and social concerns:

    • displacement of communities
    • competition with food production for resources
    • access issues for the poor.

    So statements 2 and 3 are correct limitations for developing countries.

    (Source: FAO reports on algal biofuels)

    Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
81. 81.
    Environment

    In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be potential sites for carbon sequestration?

    1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
    2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
    3. Subterranean deep saline formations

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    All three are potential sites for geological carbon sequestration.

    Carbon sequestration refers to the process of capturing atmospheric CO2 and storing it long-term to mitigate global warming.

    Geological sequestration involves injecting captured CO2 deep underground into suitable rock formations where it is trapped and stored permanently.

    The three main types of geological storage sites are:

    • (1) Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams: CO2 can be injected into coal seams that are too deep or thin to be economically mined. The coal surface adsorbs (binds) CO2 molecules, trapping them. An additional benefit is that injecting CO2 can displace methane trapped in the coal, which can then be recovered and used as fuel — this is called Enhanced Coal Bed Methane (ECBM) recovery.

    • (2) Depleted oil and gas reservoirs: These are geological formations that previously held oil or gas for millions of years, proving they can trap fluids effectively. Once the oil/gas is extracted, the empty pore spaces can be filled with CO2. Injecting CO2 can also help extract remaining oil — this is called Enhanced Oil Recovery (EOR).

    • (3) Subterranean deep saline formations: These are deep underground layers of porous rock saturated with brine (salty water). They have the largest potential storage capacity among all geological options. CO2 injected into these formations dissolves in the brine or gets trapped in the rock pores.

    All three sites are well-established in carbon capture and storage (CCS) science.

    So statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.

    Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
82. 82.
    Environment

    Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

    1. AMeasuring oxygen levels in blood
    2. BComputing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
    3. CPollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
    4. DAssessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems

    Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed (demanded) by aerobic biological organisms (mainly bacteria) to break down organic material present in a given water sample at a certain temperature over a specific time period.

    It is one of the most important indicators of water pollution in aquatic ecosystems.

    A high BOD value means there is a lot of organic matter in the water, which in turn means the water is highly polluted — because more oxygen is being consumed by microorganisms to decompose this organic matter, leaving less oxygen for fish and other aquatic life.

    Option (a) is wrong — BOD has nothing to do with blood oxygen levels.

    Option (b) is wrong — it is not used for forest ecosystems.

    Option (d) is wrong — it has nothing to do with high altitude regions.

    This is a basic concept from NCERT Class 12 Biology, Chapter 16 (Environmental Issues).

    (Source: NCERT)

    Key learnings →Pollution
83. 83.
    Environment

    In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

    1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
    2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
    3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

    Statement 1 is correct:

    Bioremediation is a waste management technique that uses naturally occurring microorganisms (bacteria, fungi, algae) to break down or neutralize hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic forms.

    It essentially enhances the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature — instead of adding synthetic chemicals, it works with nature's own cleanup mechanisms.

    The microorganisms use the contaminants as a food/energy source, breaking them down through metabolic processes.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    Not all contaminants can be 'readily and completely' treated by bioremediation.

    Heavy metals like cadmium and lead are NOT easily biodegraded because they are elemental — microorganisms cannot break them down into simpler substances the way they can break down organic pollutants.

    Heavy metals can sometimes be immobilized or concentrated by certain microorganisms (bioaccumulation/biosorption), but they cannot be 'readily and completely treated' as the statement claims.

    The words 'readily and completely' make this statement wrong.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    Genetic engineering has been successfully used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

    For example, the bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans (the most radiation-resistant organism known) has been genetically modified to consume and digest toluene and ionic mercury from highly radioactive nuclear waste — a task no naturally occurring organism can perform.

    So statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Key learnings →Pollution
84. 84.
    Science and Technology

    What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?

    1. AProduction of biolarvicides
    2. BManufacture of biodegradable plastics
    3. CReproductive cloning of animals
    4. DProduction of organisms free of diseases

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Reproductive cloning of animals

    Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) is the key technology used in reproductive cloning of animals.

    The process works as follows:

    (1) The nucleus (which contains all the DNA) is removed from a somatic cell (any body cell other than a reproductive cell) of the organism to be cloned.

    (2) This nucleus is then implanted into an unfertilised egg cell (oocyte) whose own nucleus has been removed (enucleated).

    (3) The reconstructed egg, now containing the DNA of the donor organism, is stimulated to divide and develop into an embryo.

    (4) This embryo is then implanted into a surrogate mother to develop into a clone of the original donor.

    The most famous example of SCNT is Dolly the sheep (1996), the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell.

    Option (a) is wrong — biolarvicides are biological agents used to kill mosquito larvae; they are not produced by SCNT.

    Option (b) is wrong — biodegradable plastics are made through biotechnology processes involving bacteria or plant-based materials, not SCNT.

    Option (d) is wrong — producing disease-free organisms involves different biotechnological techniques, not specifically SCNT.

    Key learnings →Biotechnology
85. 85.
    Science and Technology

    With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of 'genome sequencing', often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

    1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
    2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
    3. It can be used to decipher the host- pathogen relationships in crops.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    All three statements are correct applications of genome sequencing in agriculture.

    Genome sequencing means determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism — essentially reading the entire genetic blueprint.

    Statement 1 is correct:

    By sequencing the genomes of different crop varieties (including wild relatives), scientists can identify specific genetic markers associated with desirable traits like disease resistance and drought tolerance.

    Once these markers are identified, breeders can use marker-assisted selection to develop improved crop varieties much faster than traditional trial-and-error breeding.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    Traditional crop breeding can take 10-15 years to develop a new variety because it relies on multiple cycles of crossing and selection.

    Genome sequencing dramatically reduces this time because breeders can directly screen for desired genes at the seedling stage rather than waiting for plants to mature and show their traits.

    This is called 'genomics-assisted breeding'.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    When a pathogen (disease-causing organism like a fungus, bacteria, or virus) attacks a crop, genome sequencing of both the host plant and the pathogen can help scientists understand the molecular interactions between them — which genes in the pathogen cause disease and which genes in the crop provide defence.

    This knowledge of host-pathogen relationships is crucial for developing disease-resistant varieties.

    So all three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

    Key learnings →Biotechnology
86. 86.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following statements:

    1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
    2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Both statements are correct.

    Statement 1 is correct:

    Zika virus is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected mosquito from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti in tropical regions.

    This is the SAME mosquito species that transmits dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever.

    This is an important connection to remember — Aedes aegypti is the common vector for multiple viral diseases.

    The mosquito is identifiable by white markings on its legs and breeds in stagnant fresh water (flower pots, tyres, water containers, etc.).

    Statement 2 is correct:

    Although Zika is primarily a mosquito-borne disease, sexual transmission of Zika virus has been confirmed.

    The virus can be present in semen for weeks after infection, even after symptoms have resolved.

    This was a significant finding during the 2015-16 Zika outbreak because it meant that the virus could spread even in areas without the Aedes mosquito.

    Other transmission routes include mother-to-foetus during pregnancy (which can cause microcephaly — a birth defect where the baby's head is abnormally small) and through blood transfusion.

    The WHO confirmed India's first three cases of Zika virus in 2017.

    So both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Key learnings →Health
87. 87.
    Science and Technology

    Consider the following pairs:

    	Commonly used/consumed materials	Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them
    1.	Lipstick	Lead
    2.	Soft drinks	Brominated vegetable oils
    3.	Chinese fast food	Monosodium glutamate

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 and 3 only
    3. C1 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    All three pairs are correctly matched:

    (1) Lipstick – Lead:
    Lead is a common impurity found in cosmetic lip products like lipsticks.
    Studies by the US FDA and various consumer groups have detected trace amounts of lead in many lipstick brands.
    Lead is a toxic heavy metal and even small amounts are a health concern.

    (2) Soft drinks – Brominated vegetable oils (BVO):
    BVO is a food additive that has been used in some citrus-flavoured sodas and soft drinks to keep the citrus flavouring evenly distributed (emulsified) in the liquid rather than floating to the top.
    BVO is banned as a food additive in Europe and Japan due to health concerns, though it was permitted in some countries in limited quantities.

    (3) Chinese fast food – Monosodium glutamate (MSG):
    MSG is a flavour enhancer widely used in Chinese fast food and other Asian cuisines.
    It is a salt of glutamic acid, a non-essential amino acid, and acts as a neurotransmitter.
    MSG has been controversial because some people report adverse reactions (sometimes called 'Chinese Restaurant Syndrome'), though scientific evidence on its harmfulness remains debated.
    MSG was prominently in Indian news due to the Maggi noodles controversy.

    Since all three pairs are correctly matched, the answer is (d).

    Key learnings →Health
88. 88.
    Science and Technology

    In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?

    1. Service providers
    2. Data centres
    3. Body corporate

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 only
    2. B1 and 2 only
    3. C3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Under the Information Technology Act, 2000 (as amended in 2008), the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) serves as the national agency for cyber security.

    The Act mandates that any service provider, intermediary, data centre, or body corporate must report cyber security incidents to CERT-In.

    Section 70B of the IT Act gives CERT-In the power to:

    • collect, analyse, and disseminate information on cyber incidents
    • issue forecasts and alerts
    • coordinate response activities
    • issue guidelines on information security practices

    Failure to report cyber incidents or comply with CERT-In's directions is punishable with:

    • imprisonment up to one year
    • a fine up to one lakh rupees
    • or both

    The scope of mandatory reporting is deliberately broad — it covers:

    1. Service providers — companies that provide internet, telecom, or other digital services
    2. Data centres — facilities that store and process data
    3. Body corporate — any company, firm, or association engaged in commercial or professional activities using computer resources

    Therefore, all three categories listed in the question are legally required to report cyber security incidents, making option (d) correct.

    Key learnings →IT & Computing
89. 89.
    Science and Technology

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

    1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
    2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
    3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C3 only
    4. D2 and 3 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Only statement 2 correctly describes Smart India Hackathon 2017.

    It was a 36-hour non-stop digital product development competition (hackathon) where thousands of technology students from across India built innovative digital solutions for real-world problems posted by 29 different central government ministries and departments (including Ministry of Railways, External Affairs, Defence, ISRO, Tourism, and Dept. of Atomic Energy).

    For the first time, government departments directly engaged with students and challenged them to build digital solutions to improve efficiency, plug revenue leakages, and reduce corruption.

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    Smart India Hackathon is NOT a 'centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city into Smart Cities'.

    That describes the Smart Cities Mission, which is a completely different government initiative.

    The similar-sounding names ('Smart India' vs 'Smart Cities') are a deliberate trap.

    Statement 3 is incorrect:

    Smart India Hackathon is NOT a programme aimed at making all financial transactions completely digital.

    That goal is associated with the broader Digital India initiative and the push for a cashless/less-cash economy after demonetisation.

    The hackathon was a one-time innovation competition, not a long-term policy programme.

    So only statement 2 is correct.

    Key learnings →IT & Computing
90. 90.
    Science and Technology

    Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?

    1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
    2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
    3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1 and 3 only
    2. B2 only
    3. C1, 2 and 3
    4. DNone of the above statements is correct

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

    All three statements are correct advantages of OLED displays over LCD displays:

    (1) OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates: Unlike LCDs which require rigid glass backlighting panels, OLEDs are made of organic compounds that emit light when electric current flows through them.

    This allows them to be deposited on flexible plastic substrates, making bendable and curved displays possible.

    (2) Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs: Because OLEDs can be printed onto almost any substrate using inkjet printer technology, they enable revolutionary applications like displays embedded in clothing or roll-up screens.

    This is not possible with conventional LCD technology due to its rigid structure and backlight requirement.

    (3) Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs: LCDs use a backlight to illuminate pixels, which makes them opaque.

    OLEDs generate their own light — each pixel emits light independently.

    When the pixels are off, the OLED material can be transparent, enabling see-through displays.

    This property is unique to OLED technology.

    The key difference to remember: LCDs need a separate backlight layer (making them rigid, thick, and opaque), while OLEDs are self-emissive (each pixel produces its own light), enabling flexibility, thinness, and transparency.

    So all three statements (1, 2, and 3) are correct.

    Key learnings →IT & Computing
91. 91.
    Science and Technology

    With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements:

    1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
    2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Both statements are correct.

    Statement 1 is correct:

    The National IPR Policy was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2016 and it explicitly recognizes that India has a well-established TRIPS-compliant (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) legislative, administrative, and judicial framework.

    The policy reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement, while also utilizing the flexibilities provided in the international regime (such as compulsory licensing) to address India's developmental concerns.

    This is significant because it reassures trading partners that India respects international IP commitments while also protecting its right to use TRIPS flexibilities for public health and other developmental needs.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, was designated as the nodal department to coordinate, guide, and oversee the implementation and future development of IPRs in India.

    DIPP (now renamed as Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade — DPIIT) is responsible for administering patents, trademarks, industrial designs, and geographical indications through various IP offices under its control.

    So both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Key learnings →Science and Technology Governance
92. 92.
    Science and Technology

    What is the purpose of 'evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' project?

    1. ATo detect neutrinos
    2. BTo detect gravitational waves
    3. CTo detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
    4. DTo study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) To detect gravitational waves

    eLISA (evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna) is a planned space-based gravitational wave observatory led by the European Space Agency (ESA).

    The project involves placing three spacecraft in a triangular formation in space, trailing the Earth in its orbit around the Sun at a distance of over 50 million km.

    These spacecraft will use laser interferometry to measure incredibly tiny changes in the distances between free-floating test cubes inside each spacecraft.

    When a gravitational wave passes through, it stretches and squeezes space itself, causing minute changes in these distances — which the laser interferometers can detect.

    Gravitational waves were first predicted by Albert Einstein in 1916 as part of his General Theory of Relativity, and they were first directly detected by the ground-based LIGO observatory in 2015 (a discovery that won the 2017 Nobel Prize in Physics).

    eLISA is the next step — moving the detection to space, where it can detect gravitational waves of much lower frequencies than ground-based detectors.

    Option (a) is wrong — neutrino detection uses different technology (like ice/water-based detectors).

    Option (c) is wrong — eLISA has nothing to do with missile defence.

    Option (d) is wrong — solar flare studies use different instruments.

    Key association: eLISA = space-based + laser interferometer + gravitational wave detection.

    Key learnings →Space
93. 93.
    Science and Technology

    The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard Model' are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

    1. AObservation and understanding of the Universe
    2. BStudy of the solar and the lunar eclipses
    3. CPlacing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
    4. DOrigin and evolution of living organisms on the earth

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) Observation and understanding of the Universe

    All four terms belong to modern physics and cosmology, making option (a) correct.

    Event Horizon: The boundary around a black hole beyond which nothing — not even light — can escape. It is the 'point of no return' in a black hole's gravitational field.

    Singularity: A point in space-time where the gravitational field becomes infinitely strong, such as the centre of a black hole. At a singularity, the laws of physics as we know them break down.

    String Theory: A theoretical framework in physics that attempts to reconcile quantum mechanics and general relativity by proposing that the fundamental constituents of the universe are not point-like particles but tiny one-dimensional vibrating 'strings'. Different vibration patterns of these strings give rise to different particles.

    Standard Model: The Standard Model of particle physics is the theory that describes three of the four known fundamental forces (electromagnetic, weak nuclear, and strong nuclear forces — but NOT gravity) and classifies all known elementary particles (quarks, leptons, bosons, etc.).

    These terms have nothing to do with eclipses (option b), satellite placement (option c), or biological evolution (option d).

    They all relate to understanding the fundamental nature and workings of the universe at its most basic level.

    Key learnings →Space
94. 94.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

    1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
    2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    The inaugural IONS (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium) was held in New Delhi, India in February 2008 (not 2015), and the Chief of Naval Staff of the Indian Navy served as chairman for the period 2008-2010.

    The theme was 'Contemporary Trans-national Challenges – International Maritime Connectivities'.

    Statement 2 is correct:

    IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral (coastal) states of the Indian Ocean Region.

    It provides an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues.

    There are 35 member navies grouped into four sub-regions:

    • South Asian Littorals
    • West Asian Littorals
    • East African Littorals
    • South East Asian and Australian Littorals.

    The key fact to remember is that IONS was started in 2008 in India, not 2015.

    IONS has gained importance due to growing Chinese naval presence in the Indian Ocean region.

    So only statement 2 is correct.

    Key learnings →Extended Neighbourhood and Other Regions
95. 95.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

    1. AIndia's trade with African countries will enormously increase.
    2. BIndia's relations with oil- producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
    3. CIndia will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
    4. DPakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

    Show answer

    Answer: (C) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

    Chabahar Port is located in the Sistan-Baluchestan province of southeastern Iran, on the coast of the Gulf of Oman.

    India signed agreements with Iran to develop this port primarily to gain an alternative trade route to Afghanistan and Central Asia that completely bypasses Pakistan.

    Without Chabahar, India's land access to Afghanistan is blocked because Pakistan does not allow Indian goods to transit through its territory.

    With Chabahar, goods can be shipped from Indian ports to Chabahar (Iran) by sea, and then transported overland through Iran to Afghanistan and further into Central Asian countries.

    This also connects to the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).

    Option (a) is wrong — Chabahar is not primarily about trade with African countries.

    Option (b) is wrong — while India does have important relations with oil-producing Arab countries, Chabahar specifically addresses the Afghanistan/Central Asia access problem.

    Option (d) is completely unrelated — Pakistan has no role in facilitating a gas pipeline between Iraq and India through Chabahar.

    Key association: Chabahar = India's gateway to Afghanistan and Central Asia without depending on Pakistan.

    Key learnings →Immediate Neighbourhood (South Asia)
96. 96.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    With reference to 'Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)', consider the following statements:

    1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme 'Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure'.

    2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. A1 only
    2. B2 only
    3. CBoth 1 and 2
    4. DNeither 1 nor 2

    Show answer

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Both statements are incorrect.

    Statement 1 is incorrect:

    While the 1st APMCHUD was indeed held in New Delhi, India in December 2006, its theme was 'A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020' — NOT 'Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure'.

    The theme mentioned in the question actually belongs to the 6th APMCHUD held in December 2016.

    UPSC deliberately swapped the themes to test whether you know exact facts vs. approximate facts.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    India does NOT host all the conferences.

    APMCHUD conferences have been held in different countries:

    • 1st in India (2006)
    • 2nd in Tehran, Iran
    • 3rd in Solo, Indonesia
    • 4th in Amman, Jordan
    • 5th in Seoul, South Korea.

    Also, APMCHUD is not organized in partnership with ADB, APEC, and ASEAN as stated.

    It is a consultative mechanism established under the aegis and support of UN-Habitat for promoting sustainable housing and urban development in the Asia-Pacific region.

    Since both statements are wrong, the answer is (d).

    This is classified as an 'unconventional' question — the detailed facts about APMCHUD themes and host countries are very difficult to find in standard preparation sources.

    Key learnings →Immediate Neighbourhood (South Asia)
97. 97.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    Consider the following statements:

    1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
    2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
    3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. A1 and 2 only
    2. B1 and 3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1, 2 and 3

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) sets forth a series of measures for expeditiously moving goods across borders inspired by the best practices from around the world.

    It attempts to create an international framework for reducing trade costs.

    It has provisions that expedite the movement of goods, clearance of goods and release of goods by simplifying customs rules and regulations among the countries.

    Statement 1 is correct: India ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement of WTO in 2016.

    India is the 76th WTO member to accept the TFA.

    Statement 2 is correct: TFA was an outcome of the WTO's 9th Bali (Indonesia) Ministerial package of 2013.

    The agreement includes provisions for:

    • Lowering import tariffs and agricultural subsidies: It makes it easier for developing countries to trade with the developed world in global markets.
    • Abolish hard import quotas: Developed countries would abolish hard import quotas on agricultural products from the developing world and instead would only be allowed to charge tariffs on the amount of agricultural imports exceeding specific limits.
    • Reduction in red tape at international borders: It aims to reduce red-tapism to facilitate trade by reforming customs bureaucracies and formalities.

    Statement 3 is not correct: It came into force in February 2017 and not in 2016.

    Withdrawn from the question bankImmediate Neighbourhood (South Asia)
98. 98.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    'Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

    1. AEuropean Union
    2. BGulf Cooperation Council
    3. COrganization for Economic Cooperation and Development
    4. DShanghai Cooperation Organization

    Show answer

    Answer: (A) European Union

    The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) is the name for the Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations between India and the European Union (EU).

    These negotiations began in 2007 but have been deadlocked since 2013 after 16 rounds of talks, primarily due to disagreements on issues like:

    • market access for goods
    • services liberalisation (especially movement of professionals)
    • data security
    • intellectual property rights
    • investment protection

    The EU has also raised concerns about India's unilateral termination of existing Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) with several EU member countries.

    Options (b), (c), and (d) are wrong because BTIA specifically refers to the India-EU trade negotiation track — it is not associated with the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), the OECD, or the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO).

    Key association: BTIA = India + EU trade/FTA negotiations.

    Key learnings →Major Powers
99. 99.
    World Affairs (International Relations)

    With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations Programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

    1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
    2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
    3. UN-Habitat contributed to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. A1, 2 and 3
    2. B1 and 3 only
    3. C2 and 3 only
    4. D1 only

    Show answer

    Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

    Statement 1 is correct:

    UN-Habitat is the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future.

    It has been mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable human settlements and the achievement of adequate shelter for all.

    Statement 2 is incorrect:

    UN-Habitat does NOT work only with governments or local urban authorities.

    It partners with a wide range of stakeholders including:

    • NGOs
    • trade unions
    • professionals
    • academics
    • researchers
    • indigenous peoples
    • private sector entities
    • foundations
    • financial institutions

    The word 'only' in the statement makes it wrong.

    Statement 3 is correct:

    UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the UN system to reduce poverty and promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation, because effective urban planning directly impacts poverty reduction, access to water, sanitation, and overall quality of life in cities.

    UN-Habitat was in news in 2016-17 because of the Habitat III conference (which happens once every 20 years) and India being elected as president of UN-Habitat.

    So statements 1 and 3 are correct.

    Key learnings →Multilateral System
100. 100.
     World Affairs (International Relations)

     Consider the following statements:

     1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
     2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

     Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

     1. A1 only
     2. B2 only
     3. CBoth 1 and 2
     4. DNeither 1 nor 2

     Show answer

     Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

     Both statements are incorrect.

     Statement 1 is incorrect:

     The Nuclear Security Summits (NSS) were NOT held under the aegis of the United Nations.

     They were a US-led initiative, launched by President Barack Obama in 2010.

     Four summits were held:

     • Washington D.C. (2010)
     • Seoul (2012)
     • The Hague (2014)
     • Washington D.C. again (2016).

     The summits focused on securing vulnerable nuclear materials worldwide to prevent nuclear terrorism.

     While many countries and international organisations participated, the initiative was driven by the US, not the UN.

     Statement 2 is incorrect:

     The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is NOT an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).

     The IPFM was founded in January 2006 and is an INDEPENDENT group of arms-control and non-proliferation experts from both nuclear weapon states and non-nuclear weapon states.

     Its members include nuclear experts from 17 countries including India, the US, Russia, China, France, UK, Pakistan, and others.

     It researches and publishes reports on fissile material stocks, production, and policies — but it operates independently, not as part of the IAEA.

     Since both statements are wrong, the answer is (d).

     Key learnings →Multilateral System
101. 101.
     World Affairs (International Relations)

     Which of the following gives 'Global Gender Gap Index' ranking to the countries of the world?

     1. AWorld Economic Forum
     2. BUN Human Rights Council
     3. CUN Women
     4. DWorld Health Organization

     Show answer

     Answer: (A) World Economic Forum

     The Global Gender Gap Index is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF) as part of its Global Gender Gap Report.

     The index benchmarks countries on their progress towards gender parity across four key dimensions:

     • (1) Economic Participation and Opportunity (wages, labour force participation, senior roles)
     • (2) Educational Attainment (access to education)
     • (3) Health and Survival (life expectancy, sex ratio at birth)
     • (4) Political Empowerment (women in parliament, ministerial positions).

     India ranked 87th out of 144 countries in the 2016 report (improving from 108th in 2015).

     Option (b) UN Human Rights Council — deals with human rights violations globally but does not publish this specific index.

     Option (c) UN Women — is the UN entity dedicated to gender equality and women's empowerment but publishes different reports.

     Option (d) World Health Organization — focuses on health issues and does not publish a gender gap ranking.

     This is a frequently asked factual question.

     Remember: WEF publishes several important indices — Global Gender Gap Index, Global Competitiveness Index, and Global Risks Report.

     Do not confuse these with UN-published indices like HDI (by UNDP) or World Happiness Report.

     Key learnings →News Through Maps

No questions for this subject.

End of paper · 101 questions · 2016 paper →