UPSC Prelims GS Paper I · 2022

104 questions
2 hours
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100 with key learnings

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1.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Consider the following pairs:

King Dynasty

1. Nannuka Chandela

2. Jayashakti Paramara

3. Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara

4. Bhoja Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. AOnly one pair
2. BOnly two pairs
3. COnly three pairs
4. DAll four pairs
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
The answer is (B) Only two pairs are correct (Nannuka-Chandela and Nagabhata II-Gurjara-Pratihara).

Pair 1 is CORRECT:
Nannuka (Nannuk) was the FOUNDER of the Chandela dynasty.
He was a chieftain based around Khajuraho.
The Chandelas later became famous for building the Khajuraho temples.

Pair 2 is WRONG:
Jayashakti was a CHANDELA ruler (also called Jai Jak — the region Jajikabhukti was named after him),
NOT a Paramara ruler.
The Paramara dynasty ruled Malwa with rulers like Bhoja.

Pair 3 is CORRECT:
Nagabhata II was a GURJARA-PRATIHARA ruler.
The Pratiharas were founded by Nagabhata I,
and Nagabhata II was another important king of this dynasty that ruled much of North India.

Pair 4 is WRONG:
Bhoja (Mihir Bhoja) was a GURJARA-PRATIHARA ruler,
NOT a Rashtrakuta.
The Rashtrakutas were a different dynasty founded by Dantidurga,
based at Manyakheta (Malkhed) in the Deccan.

The famous "tripartite struggle" was between Pratiharas, Palas, and Rashtrakutas over Kannauj.
Key learnings →Early Medieval India (c. 600-1200 CE)
2.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
1. ASangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
2. BThe social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
3. CSangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
4. DSangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.
Show answer
Answer: (B) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
The answer is (B) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

Sangam literature (c. 3rd century BC to 3rd century AD) is a collection of Tamil poems composed by various poets in assemblies (Sangams) patronized by Pandya kings of Madurai.

Why (B) is correct:

Sangam society had clear social divisions.

The ruling class (arasar)

Rich peasants (vellalas)

Lowest class (kadaisiyar)

show that social stratification similar to the Varna system was known. Civil and military positions were held by vellalas.

Why other options are wrong:

(A) WRONG: Sangam poems are RICH in references to material culture — cities, trade, gold, Roman trade links, etc.

(C) WRONG: Warrior ethic is prominently featured. Military captains got the title "enadi," and warfare is a major theme.

(D) WRONG: Sangam literature describes "Ananku" — magical sacred forces believed to inhabit various objects. These were accepted, not called irrational.

Key fact: Sangam literature is valuable because it describes the real social, economic, and political life of ancient Tamil Nadu.
Key learnings →Post-Mauryan India and Sangam Age
3.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2
2. B2 only
3. C1 and 3
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The answer is (B) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

The first Mongol invasion of India did NOT happen under Jalal-ud-din Khalji.

It happened much earlier — Genghis Khan reached the Indus River in 1221 during the reign of ILTUTMISH (chasing the Khwarizmi prince).

The Khalji dynasty came much later.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

During Ala-ud-din Khalji's reign, a massive Mongol army (1,20,000 horsemen) under Targhi reached DELHI in 1303 and actually BESIEGED the city for two months.

Ala-ud-din had to hide in Siri Fort because most of his army was away on the Telingana campaign.

The Mongols eventually left because they couldn't break the fort.

Statement 3 is WRONG:

Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq did NOT lose territory to Mongols.

When Mongols invaded under Tarmashirin in 1327, accounts suggest either Muhammad Tughlaq defeated them or bribed them to leave.

No territory was permanently lost.
Key learnings →The Delhi Sultanate (1206-1526)
4.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?
1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master's son.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (D) All three are correct.

According to Kautilya's Arthashastra (ancient Indian political treatise):

Statement 1 is CORRECT: A person could become a slave through:

Birth (born to slave parents)

Selling oneself voluntarily

Being captured in war

Judicial punishment (as a penalty for crimes)

Statement 2 is CORRECT: If a female slave had a son fathered by her master, she was legally set FREE. This was a progressive provision for that era.

Statement 3 is CORRECT: The son born to a female slave from her master was entitled to the same legal status as the master's other sons. He was treated as a legitimate heir.

Key takeaway: The Arthashastra shows that while slavery existed in ancient India, there were clear legal protections — particularly for female slaves who bore children to their masters. Both mother and child gained freedom/status.
Key learnings →The Gupta Empire
5.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Consider the following pairs:

Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts Location in the State of

1. Dhauli Odisha

2. Erragudi Andhra Pradesh

3. Jaugada Madhya Pradesh

4. Kalsi Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. AOnly one pair
2. BOnly two pairs
3. COnly three pairs
4. DAll four pairs
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
Option (b) is correct:

EDICTS OF ASHOKA
Manserah
Shabazgarhi
Kandahar
Kalsi
Dehli-Topra
Lumbini
Meerut
Lauriya-Nandangarh
Rampurva
Kausambi
Lauriya-Araraj
Girnar
Sopara
Dhauli
Sannathi
Jaugada
Amaravati
Yerragudi

EDICTS OF ASHOKA

Major rock edicts

Pillar edicts

Minor rock edicts

Territorial limits

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Dhauli is located in Odisha.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Erragudi or Yerragudi is located in Andhra Pradesh

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Jaugada is located in Odisha.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Kalsi is located in Uttarakhand.
Key learnings →The Mauryan Empire
6.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
"Yogavasistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
1. AAkbar
2. BHumayun
3. CShahjahan
4. DAurangzeb
Show answer
Answer: (A) Akbar
The answer is (A) Akbar.

The Yogavasistha is an important Hindu philosophical text.

It was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during AKBAR's reign.

Why Akbar?

Akbar was famous for promoting a grand translation movement.

He encouraged scholars to translate important Sanskrit texts into Persian to bridge cultural understanding between Hindu and Muslim traditions.

His court included both Muslim scholars and Hindu pandits who worked together on translations.

Other famous translations during Akbar's reign:

Mahabharata → translated as Razmnama

Ramayana → translated into Persian

Atharva Veda, Lilavati → also translated

Why not the others:

(B) Humayun — came earlier, was busy fighting for survival, no major translation movement

(C) Shahjahan — later period, more focused on architecture (Taj Mahal era)

(D) Aurangzeb — later period, less interested in such cultural synthesis
Key learnings →The Mughal Empire
7.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:
1. AClothing
2. BCoins
3. COrnaments
4. DWeapons
Show answer
Answer: (B) Coins
The answer is (B) Coins.

"Fanam" was a type of small coin used in South India between the 9th and 19th centuries.

These were tiny gold coins — weighing as little as 0.3 grams with a diameter of less than 1 centimeter!

Various Indian coins had popular names like:

anna

paisa

mohur

pagoda

rupiya

tanka

fanam

The fanam was particularly common in the kingdoms of South India (Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka) and was used in everyday trade.

Options A (clothing), C (ornaments), and D (weapons) are all incorrect.
Key learnings →Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms
8.
Modern Indian History
With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:
1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayangara empire.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The answer is (B) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:
The Dutch did NOT get land from Gajapati rulers for their east coast factories.
The Gajapati dynasty ruled Odisha (Kalinga) until 1541.
The Dutch arrived much later and established their first factory at Masulipatnam (Andhra Pradesh) in 1605, which was not Gajapati territory.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate in 1510.
Goa was Bijapur's main port, and its capture gave Portugal a strategic stronghold in India.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
The English East India Company set up a factory at Madras in 1639.
The land was leased from the Nayakas, who were local representatives of the Vijayanagara Empire.
Francis Day and Andrew Cogan started building Fort St. George there in 1640.
Key learnings →Advent of Europeans in India (1498-1763)
9.
Modern Indian History
In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved and Transferred" subjects.

Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects?
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B2, 3 and 4
3. C1, 3 and 4
4. D1, 2 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4
The answer is (C) 1, 3, and 4.

The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced "Dyarchy" — dividing provincial subjects into two categories:

RESERVED subjects (kept under the Governor's direct control — important/sensitive matters):

Land revenue

Administration of justice

Police

Law and order

Famine relief

Irrigation

Forests

Newspapers

Borrowing

TRANSFERRED subjects (handled by Indian ministers answerable to the legislature — local welfare matters):

Education

Public health

Public works

Agriculture

Local self-government

Religious endowments

Medical services

Fisheries

From the options:

Administration of Justice — RESERVED (correct)

Local Self-Government — TRANSFERRED (wrong — this was given to Indian ministers)

Land Revenue — RESERVED (correct)

Police — RESERVED (correct)

Memory trick: The British kept control of anything related to power, money, and order (police, revenue, justice). They transferred "softer" subjects like education and health.
Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
10.
Modern Indian History
With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The answer is (B) Statement 2 only.

The Cripps Mission (March 1942) was Britain's attempt to get Indian support during World War II.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

The Constituent Assembly would have members ELECTED by provincial assemblies (through proportional representation) AND members NOMINATED by princely states.

The statement says "nominated by Provincial Assemblies" — the provincial assembly members were to be ELECTED, not nominated.

Only princely states would nominate their representatives.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

Any province that didn't want to join the Indian Union could opt out and form its own separate union with its own constitution.

It could also sign a separate agreement with Britain about its future status.

This was a controversial provision because it essentially allowed for the partition of India.

The Cripps Mission ultimately failed — both the Congress and the Muslim League rejected its proposals.
Key learnings →Freedom and Partition (1939-1947)
11.
Modern Indian History
Consider the following freedom fighters:
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose
Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
1. A1 and 2
2. B2 only
3. C1 and 3
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (D) 3 only
The answer is (D) Rash Behari Bose only.

The Ghadar Party was founded in 1913 by Indian immigrants in the USA and Canada to overthrow British rule in India through armed revolution.

Rash Behari Bose: YES, he was associated with the Ghadar Party. He was an extremist revolutionary who participated in the Ghadar movement and later fled to Japan, where he established the Indian Independence League.

Barindra Kumar Ghosh: NO. He was part of the Anushilan Samiti (founded in Calcutta in 1902), which was a revolutionary group in Bengal — separate from the Ghadar Party.

Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee: NO. He co-founded the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) in 1924 with Ram Prasad Bismil — a different revolutionary organization.

Key point: Don't confuse different revolutionary groups!

Ghadar Party was based overseas (USA/Canada)

Anushilan Samiti was in Bengal

HRA was in North India.
Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)
12.
Art and Culture
The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?
1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
The answer is (A) Statements 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
Somnath Temple is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas (sacred shrines of Lord Shiva).
It's located at Veraval in Gujarat.
"Somnath" means "protector of the moon god."

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
Al-Biruni, the famous Persian scholar who accompanied Mahmud of Ghazni, described the Somnath Temple in his writings.
He noted it was built of stone and was about 100 years old at the time of Mahmud's attack in 1025 AD.

Statement 3 is WRONG:
The Pran Pratishtha (consecration) of the present-day temple was done by President Dr. RAJENDRA PRASAD (India's first President) in 1951, NOT President S. Radhakrishnan (who was the second President).

Important history:
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel pledged to rebuild the temple in 1947.
He was the first chairman of the Shri Somnath Trust.
The temple was rebuilt on the original site (it's the 7th reconstruction — it was destroyed and rebuilt six times before).
Key learnings →Indian Architecture
13.
Art and Culture
With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:
1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana
Which of the above are Jaina texts?
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B2 and 4 only
3. C1, 3 and 4
4. D2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 4 only
The answer is (B)

Only Parishishtaparvan and Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana (2 and 4) are Jaina texts.

Let's identify each text:

Nettipakarana — BUDDHIST text (not Jain). It's a Pali Buddhist scripture, a guide for teaching Buddha's teachings to others.

Parishishtaparvan — JAIN text. Written by Hemachandra (12th century), it's a Sanskrit poem about the histories of early Jain teachers. CORRECT.

Avadanashataka — BUDDHIST text (not Jain). It's a collection of stories about Buddha's previous lives and karma, written in Sanskrit around the 2nd century.

Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana — JAIN text. A major Jain work written by Acharya Jinasena and completed by Gunabhadra in the 9th century during the Rashtrakuta period. CORRECT.

Quick way to identify:

If a text is in Pali or mentions Buddha/karma stories = likely Buddhist.

If it mentions Jain Acharyas/teachers = Jain.
Key learnings →Indian Languages and Literature
14.
Art and Culture
Consider the following pairs:

(Historical place) (Well-known for)
1. Burzahom - Rock-cut shrines
2. Chandra-ketugarh - Terracotta art
3. Ganeshwar - Copper artifacts
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2
3. C3 only
4. D2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 2 and 3
Pair 1 is not correctly matched:

The Burzahom archaeological site is located in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir.

It is a Neolithic Site.

Pair 2 is correctly matched:

Archaeologist Rakhaldas Banerji discovered terracotta artifacts at Chandraketugarh in West Bengal.

Pair 3 is correctly matched:

The Ganeshwar-Jodhpura culture in North-Eastern Rajasthan yielded many copper objects.
Withdrawn from the question bankIndian Sculpture, Pottery and Paintings
15.
Art and Culture
With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

Historical Person Known as

1. Aryadeva Jaina scholar

2. Dignaga Buddhist scholar

3. Nathamuni Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. ANone of the pairs
2. BOnly one pair
3. COnly two pairs
4. DAll three pairs
Show answer
Answer: (C) Only two pairs
The answer is (C) Only two pairs are correct (Pairs 2 and 3).

Pair 1 is WRONG:

Aryadeva was a BUDDHIST scholar (3rd century), NOT a Jain scholar.

He was a disciple of Nagarjuna and a key figure in Madhyamaka Buddhist philosophy.

Pair 2 is CORRECT:

Dignaga was a BUDDHIST scholar (6th century).

He was an Indian Buddhist monk and the founder of Indian logic (Hetu Vidya).

Born near Kanchipuram.

Pair 3 is CORRECT:

Nathamuni was a VAISHNAVA scholar.

He compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham (a collection of Tamil Vaishnava hymns) and is considered the first of the Sri Vaishnava Acharyas.

Key point:

Both Aryadeva and Dignaga were Buddhist scholars.

The trap is labeling Aryadeva as Jain — he was actually a direct disciple of Nagarjuna, one of the most important Buddhist philosophers.
Key learnings →Religions and Philosophy of India
16.
Art and Culture
The World's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently.

Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?
1. AThe best means of salvation was devotion.
2. BVedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
3. CLogical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
4. DSalvation was to be obtained through mediation.
Show answer
Answer: (A) The best means of salvation was devotion.
The answer is (A) The best means of salvation was devotion.

Ramanujacharya (11th century) was a great Vaishnava philosopher and social reformer from Tamil Nadu.

His core teaching: The BEST way to attain salvation (moksha) is through intense DEVOTION (bhakti) to Lord Vishnu.

This is his most important contribution — making devotion the primary path to God, accessible to everyone regardless of caste.

Key points about Ramanujacharya:

Propounded "Vishishtadvaita" (qualified non-dualism) philosophy

Influenced by the Alvars (Tamil Vishnu devotees)

Preached universal salvation through devotion, compassion, humility, and equality

Inspired later Bhakti saints like Kabir, Meerabai, Annamacharya, Thyagaraja

Recent context: A 216-feet "Statue of Equality" was inaugurated in Hyderabad in 2022 on his 1000th birth anniversary.

Why other options are wrong:

(B) While he respected the Vedas, his MAIN teaching was about devotion, not just Vedic authority

(C) Logic was not his primary path — bhakti was

(D) He emphasized devotion, not just meditation
Key learnings →Religions and Philosophy of India
17.
Art and Culture
With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran"?
1. AArab merchants
2. BQalandars
3. CPersian calligraphists
4. DSayyids
Show answer
Answer: (D) Sayyids
The answer is (D) Sayyids.

"Kulah-Daran" literally means "wearers of the pointed cap (kulah)."

The Sayyids claimed descent from Prophet Muhammad through his daughter Fatima.

They held a very respected position in Muslim society during the Delhi Sultanate period.

Even Timur reportedly spared Sayyids during his otherwise brutal invasion of India.

The Sayyids were identified by their distinctive pointed caps (kulah), earning them the title "Kulah-Daran" (cap-wearers).

The other options are wrong:

(A) Arab merchants — not known by this term

(B) Qalandars — these were wandering Sufi mystics

(C) Persian calligraphists — not known by this term
Key learnings →Religions and Philosophy of India
18.
Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth's surface and thus cause warming effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
The answer is (D) Neither statement is correct. Both are REVERSED!

Statement 1 is WRONG (it's backwards!):
HIGH clouds do NOT primarily reflect solar radiation.
It's actually LOW, THICK clouds that reflect sunlight and cool the Earth.
High, thin clouds let most sunlight pass through.

Statement 2 is WRONG (also backwards!):
LOW clouds do NOT cause warming.
It's HIGH, THIN clouds that trap outgoing infrared radiation (heat from Earth) and radiate it back down, causing a warming effect.

Correct understanding:

LOW, THICK clouds → Reflect sunlight back to space → COOLING effect

HIGH, THIN clouds → Let sunlight in but trap Earth's heat → WARMING effect

Think of it this way:

Low clouds act like a MIRROR (reflecting sun = cooling)

High clouds act like a BLANKET (trapping heat = warming)

This is a classic reversal question — both statements swap the roles of high and low clouds.
Key learnings →Climatology
19.
Geography
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1, 2 and 3 only
2. B1, 2 and 4 only
3. C3 and 4 only
4. D1,2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
The answer is (B) Statements 1, 2, and 4 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

Monazite is a reddish-brown mineral that is a major source of rare earth elements (used in electronics, magnets, defense tech, etc.).

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

Monazite also contains thorium, a slightly radioactive element similar to uranium that can potentially be used as nuclear fuel.

Statement 3 is WRONG:

Monazite is NOT found along the ENTIRE Indian coast. It's found in specific beach sand deposits mainly along the coasts of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat — not everywhere.

Statement 4 is CORRECT:

Because monazite contains thorium (a nuclear material), only government bodies like Indian Rare Earths Ltd (IREL) under the Department of Atomic Energy can process or export it.

Private companies cannot handle it.
Key learnings →Economic Geography
20.
Geography
If a major solar storm (solar-flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?
1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. B2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
3. C1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
4. D1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
The answer is (C) 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only.

What solar storms CAN do:

GPS failure: YES — solar radiation disrupts satellite signals

Damage power grids: YES — magnetic fluctuations can overload transformers

Intense auroras: YES — charged particles from the sun create spectacular light shows, even near the equator during major storms

Disturb satellite orbits: YES — solar storms heat the upper atmosphere, increasing drag on satellites

Disrupt polar radio: YES — radiation affects the ionosphere, disrupting shortwave radio, especially over polar regions where protection is weakest

What solar storms CANNOT do:

Tsunamis: NO — tsunamis are caused by earthquakes and underwater disturbances, not space weather

Forest fires: NO — solar flares are electromagnetic radiation bursts, not actual fire. Earth's atmosphere blocks harmful radiation from reaching the ground

Key point: Solar storms affect ELECTROMAGNETIC and ELECTRONIC systems, not physical/geological processes.
Key learnings →Geomorphology
21.
Geography
Consider the following pairs :

Peak Mountains

1. Namcha Barwa Garhwal Himalaya

2. Nanda Devi Kumaon Himalaya

3. Nokrek Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
1. A1 and 2
2. B2 only
3. C1 and 3
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The answer is (B) Only Pair 2 is correct.

Pair 1 is WRONG:
Namcha Barwa is in Tibet (far eastern Himalayas), NOT in Garhwal Himalaya (which is in Uttarakhand).

Pair 2 is CORRECT:
Nanda Devi (India's 2nd highest peak, 7,817m) is in the Kumaon Himalayas, Chamoli district, Uttarakhand.

Pair 3 is WRONG:
Nokrek Peak is the highest peak of Garo Hills in MEGHALAYA, NOT Sikkim Himalaya. Sikkim has peaks like Kangchenjunga — totally different region.

Tip:
These "match the pairs" questions often rely on you confusing eastern and western Himalayan features.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
22.
Geography
Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs States

1. Ghataprabha Telangana

2. Gandhi Sagar Madhya Pradesh

3. Indira Sagar Andhra Pradesh

4. Maithon Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
1. AOnly one pair
2. BOnly two pairs
3. COnly three pairs
4. DAll four pairs
Show answer
Answer: (C) Only three pairs
The answer is (C) Three pairs are wrongly matched.

Pair 1 is WRONG:
Ghataprabha is a river in KARNATAKA (a tributary of the Krishna).
The Hidkal Dam is built on it in Belagavi district, Karnataka — not Telangana.

Pair 2 is CORRECT:
Gandhi Sagar Dam is in MADHYA PRADESH, built on the Chambal River in Mandsaur district.

Pair 3 is WRONG:
Indira Sagar Dam is in MADHYA PRADESH (on the Narmada River in Khandwa district), not Andhra Pradesh.
It's India's largest dam by water storage volume.

Pair 4 is WRONG:
Maithon Dam is in JHARKHAND (on the Barakar River near Dhanbad), not Chhattisgarh.

So only 1 pair is correct (Gandhi Sagar - MP), and 3 are wrong.

Memory tip:
Both Gandhi Sagar and Indira Sagar are in Madhya Pradesh.
Maithon is near the coal city of Dhanbad (Jharkhand).
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
23.
Geography
Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?
1. ACauvery
2. BManjira
3. CPennar
4. DTungabhadra
Show answer
Answer: (C) Pennar
The answer is (C) Pennar River.

Gandikota is in Kadapa district, Andhra Pradesh. Its stunning canyon — nicknamed "Grand Canyon of India" — was carved by the Pennar River cutting through hills over millions of years.

Remember:
Gandikota = Kadapa = Andhra Pradesh = Pennar River.

Other rivers are in different regions:

Cauvery: Karnataka/Tamil Nadu

Manjira: Tributary of Godavari in Telangana

Tungabhadra: Karnataka (near Hampi)
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
24.
Geography
Consider the following States:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
1. AOnly one State
2. BOnly two States
3. COnly three States
4. DAll four States
Show answer
Answer: (D) All four States
This is another UPSC question where the wording “generally known as tea-producing States” is intentionally broad.

All four States are considered tea-producing States.

Andhra Pradesh — tea cultivation is carried out in regions such as the Araku Valley and some hilly tribal areas.

Kerala — a major tea-producing State, especially:

Munnar

Wayanad

Himachal Pradesh — known for Kangra tea, produced mainly in the Kangra Valley.

Tripura — an important tea-growing State in Northeast India.

The trap in the question is that many aspirants associate tea production only with the major traditional States like:

Assam,

West Bengal,

Tamil Nadu,

Kerala.

But UPSC used the phrase “generally known as tea-producing States” rather than “major tea-producing States.”

Therefore, even smaller or emerging tea-producing regions like Andhra Pradesh are included.

Hence, the correct answer is All four States.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
25.
Geography
Consider the following pairs :

Wetland/Lake Location

1. Hokera Wetland Punjab

2. Renuka Wetland Himachal Pradesh

3. Rudrasagar Lake Tripura

4. Sasthamkotta Lake Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. AOnly one pair
2. BOnly two pairs
3. COnly three pairs
4. DAll four pairs
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
The answer is (B) Only two pairs are correct (Pairs 2 and 3).

Pair 1 is WRONG:
Hokera Wetland is in KASHMIR (J&K), not Punjab.
It's located in the northwest Himalayan region behind the Pir Panjal range.

Pair 2 is CORRECT:
Renuka Wetland is indeed in Himachal Pradesh.
It's a natural freshwater wetland with springs.

Pair 3 is CORRECT:
Rudrasagar Lake (also called Twijilikma) is in Melaghar, TRIPURA.
It's recognized as a wetland of national importance.

Pair 4 is WRONG:
Sasthamkotta Lake is in KERALA, not Tamil Nadu.
It's the largest freshwater lake in Kerala, also known as the "Queen of Lakes."
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
26.
Geography
In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:
1. AFirst half of the month of June
2. BSecond half of the month of June
3. CFirst half of the month of July
4. DSecond half of the month of July
Show answer
Answer: (B) Second half of the month of June
The answer is (B) Second half of June.

The longest day in the Northern Hemisphere occurs during the Summer Solstice, which falls around June 21 every year.

This is when the North Pole is tilted most toward the Sun.

June 21 falls in the SECOND half of June (June 16-30).

On this day:

Northern Hemisphere gets maximum sunlight = longest day

Southern Hemisphere gets minimum sunlight = shortest day (winter solstice there)

Simple memory aid: "June 21 = longest day in the north, shortest day in the south."
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
27.
Geography
Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned in the news Country

1. Anatolia Turkey

2. Amhara Ethiopia

3. Cabo Delgado Spain

4. Catalonia Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. AOnly one pair
2. BOnly two pairs
3. COnly three pairs
4. DAll four pairs
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
The answer is (B) Only two pairs are correct (Anatolia-Turkey and Amhara-Ethiopia).

Pair 1 is CORRECT:
Anatolia is the Asian part of Turkey (the large peninsula).
It's a historical crossroads between Asia and Europe.
Also called "Asia Minor."

Pair 2 is CORRECT:
Amhara is a region in NORTHWESTERN ETHIOPIA.
It's the homeland of the Amhara people and contains Lake Tana (Ethiopia's largest lake).
It's been in the news due to ethnic conflicts between Amhara, Oromo, and Tigrayan groups.

Pair 3 is WRONG:
Cabo Delgado is in MOZAMBIQUE, not Spain.
It's Mozambique's northernmost province, in the news due to extremist attacks by Al-Shabab since 2017.

Pair 4 is WRONG:
Catalonia is in SPAIN, not Italy.
It's in northeastern Spain and has been in the news due to its independence/separatist movement.

Memory tip:
Cabo Delgado = Mozambique (not Spain).
Catalonia = Spain (not Italy).
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
28.
Geography
Consider the following countries :
1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?
1. A1, 2 and 5 only
2. B1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. C3, 4 and 5 only
4. D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (C) 3, 4 and 5 only
The answer is (C) Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan only.

Afghanistan shares borders with these countries:

To the NORTH: Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan (3, 4, 5)

To the EAST and SOUTH: Pakistan

To the WEST: Iran

A tiny border with China (Wakhan Corridor)

Why others are wrong:

Azerbaijan (1): Located near the Caspian Sea, far from Afghanistan. It borders Iran, Russia, Georgia, Armenia, and Turkey.

Kyrgyzstan (2): It's a Central Asian country but does NOT border Afghanistan. It's separated by Tajikistan.

Memory tip: Think "TUT" — Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan border Afghanistan from the north.
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
29.
Geography
The term "Levant" often heard in the news

roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?
1. ARegion along the eastern Mediterranean shores
2. BRegion along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
3. CRegion along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
4. DThe entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea
Show answer
Answer: (A) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
The answer is (A) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores.

"Levant" is an old term for the eastern Mediterranean coastal region. It mainly includes:

Syria

Lebanon

Palestine (including Israel, Jordan, and the West Bank)

Some scholars also include Cyprus and a small part of Turkey

The word "Levant" comes from French/Italian meaning "rising" (where the sun rises — the east). You may have heard it in "ISIL" (Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant).

The other options describe different regions:

(B) describes North Africa (Maghreb region)

(C) describes the Persian Gulf/Horn of Africa area

(D) is too broad — Levant is only the eastern part, not all Mediterranean coasts
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
30.
Geography
Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?
1. ALake Victoria
2. BLake Faguibine
3. CLake Oguta
4. DLake Volta
Show answer
Answer: (B) Lake Faguibine
The answer is (B) Lake Faguibine.

Lake Faguibine is in Mali (West Africa), west of Timbuktu.

It dried up completely in the 1970s due to severe droughts lasting about seven years.

Sand then filled the channels connecting it to the Niger River, so even when rains returned, water couldn't reach the lake.

It has been dry ever since.

Other options are wrong:

Lake Victoria (A): Africa's largest lake, in East Africa — still very much exists

Lake Oguta (C): A lake in Nigeria — still exists

Lake Volta (D): One of the world's largest man-made lakes, in Ghana — still exists
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
31.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The answer is (B) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:
A Constitution Amendment Bill does NOT need the President's prior permission.
Any MP can introduce it directly in either House.
This is different from Money Bills.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
After both Houses pass it, the President MUST give assent.
He cannot refuse or send it back.
The 24th Amendment (1971) made this clear.
No veto power here.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
Each House must pass it separately with a special majority (50%+ of total membership AND 2/3rd of those present and voting).
If one House passes and the other doesn't, the bill fails.
NO joint sitting provision exists for Constitutional Amendments.
Key learnings →Constitutional Amendments
32.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
The answer is (D) Neither is correct.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

Only the Attorney General (AG) can participate in Parliament (Article 76).

The Solicitor General CANNOT.

Also, the AG can speak but cannot vote.

The statement wrongly includes the Solicitor General.

Statement 2 is WRONG:

The Constitution says the AG holds office "during the pleasure of the President."

It does NOT say he must resign when the government resigns.

The practice of the AG resigning with the government is a CONVENTION (tradition), not a constitutional requirement.

Key lesson:

Know the difference between what the Constitution says and what happens by convention.
Key learnings →Executive
33.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The answer is (B) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

The Constitution does NOT classify ministers into ranks.

The three-tier system (Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers) comes from British convention, not the Constitution.

"Minister of State with Independent Charge" isn't even a constitutional category.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

The 91st Amendment (2003) says total ministers (including PM) cannot exceed 15% of Lok Sabha members.

With 543 seats, that means maximum ~81 ministers.

This prevents bloated cabinets.
Key learnings →Executive
34.
Indian Polity
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The answer is (B) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

In India, only law graduates enrolled in State Bar Councils are recognized as "advocates."

Government law officers, corporate lawyers, law firms, law professors, and patent attorneys are ALL excluded from recognition as advocates.

The statement incorrectly says government officers and legal firms ARE recognized.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

Under the Advocates Act, 1961, Bar Councils have the power to:

set rules for legal education,

recognize law colleges,

handle admissions,

set professional conduct standards,

conduct disciplinary proceedings.
Key learnings →Executive
35.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Minister of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
The correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Statement 1 is incorrect:

The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is a multi-stakeholder platform launched in 2015 at FICCI, New Delhi to promote sustainable sanitation through partnerships involving:

private sector,

government agencies,

financial institutions,

civil society,

donors and experts.

However, it is NOT funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization (WHO) as stated in the question.

Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is also incorrect in the strict UPSC sense:

The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) does work on urban development and provides innovative policy solutions for urban challenges.

However, NIUA is an autonomous body registered under the Societies Registration Act, and not officially described as an “apex body” of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

UPSC here is testing the precision of institutional terminology.

Therefore:

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is also incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.
Key learnings →Federalism & Local Self Government
36.
Indian Polity
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India,

which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
1. AThis would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
2. BThis would create a local self-governing body in that area.
3. CThis would convert that area into a Union Territory.
4. DThe State having such areas would be declared a special Category State.
Show answer
Answer: (A) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
The answer is (A)

This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution protects tribal areas from exploitation.

When an area comes under the Fifth Schedule:

The Governor gets special powers to make regulations that can:

PROHIBIT or restrict the transfer of tribal land to non-tribal people

Regulate land allotment to tribal members

Control money-lending activities targeting tribal people

The Supreme Court in Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh (1997) declared that transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule.

Why other options are wrong:

(B) Creating local self-governing bodies is under the Sixth Schedule (for NE India) and Panchayat laws, not the Fifth Schedule

(C) It does NOT convert the area into a Union Territory

(D) It does NOT make the state a special category state

Currently 10 states have Fifth Schedule areas: AP, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, HP, Jharkhand, MP, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, and Telangana.
Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
37.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B1, 2 and 4
3. C3 and 4 only
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4
The answer is (B) Statements 1, 2, and 4.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

The H.N. Sanyal Committee (1961) studied contempt of court laws.

Its recommendations led to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

Article 129 (Supreme Court) and Article 215 (High Courts) give these courts power to punish for their own contempt.

Statement 3 is WRONG (key trap!):

The Constitution does NOT define civil or criminal contempt.

The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 (made by Parliament) defines these terms.

Statement 4 is CORRECT:

Since the Constitution doesn't define contempt but allows Parliament to make laws on it,

Parliament has legislative power over contempt of court matters.
Key learnings →Judiciary
38.
Indian Polity
With reference to the writs, issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is correct:

A writ of Mandamus is issued to compel the performance of a public duty.

It generally does not lie against a private body. However, if a private organization is entrusted with a public duty or performs a public function, mandamus can be issued against it.

Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is also correct in the context of this question:

A writ of Mandamus does not automatically lie against a company merely because it is a Government company.

For mandamus to be issued, there must be:

a statutory duty, or

a public duty.

If the company is a non-statutory body and no public duty is involved, mandamus may not lie against it.

UPSC here is testing the distinction between:

ownership by government, and

existence of enforceable public/statutory duty.

Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.

Statement 3 is correct:

The writ of Quo Warranto challenges the legality of a person holding a public office.

Unlike many other writs, any public-spirited person can file it. The petitioner need not be personally aggrieved.

Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.

Hence:

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.
Key learnings →Judiciary
39.
Indian Polity
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 3 only
2. B1, 2 and 3
3. C3 and 4 only
4. D2 and 4 only
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
The answer is (A) Statements 1 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
The Speaker fixes the date for the Deputy Speaker's election.
The President fixes the Speaker's election date, then the elected Speaker fixes the Deputy Speaker's election date.

Statement 2 is WRONG:
No law says the Deputy Speaker must come from the opposition or ruling party.
Offering it to the opposition is just a convention (tradition), not mandatory.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
When the Deputy Speaker presides over the House, they have the SAME powers as the Speaker.
Their rulings are final and cannot be appealed.

Statement 4 is WRONG:
The motion is NOT moved by the Speaker and seconded by the PM.
House members propose and second the candidate.
Key learnings →Legislature
40.
Indian Polity
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The answer is (B) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG (it says the opposite!):

A nominated member CAN join a political party within 6 months of taking their seat.

They only get disqualified if they join AFTER six months.

Think of it as a 6-month grace period to pick a party.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

The anti-defection law has NO deadline for the Presiding Officer (Speaker) to decide defection cases.

A Speaker can delay indefinitely.

Courts can only step in after the Speaker decides.

So the person who filed the complaint just has to wait — a well-known weakness of the law.
Key learnings →Legislature
41.
Indian Polity
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2
2. B2 only
3. C1 and 3
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The answer is (B) Only no-confidence motion is exclusive to Lok Sabha.

Option 1 is NOT exclusive:
Emergency must be approved by BOTH Houses (Lok Sabha AND Rajya Sabha).
Not exclusive to Lok Sabha.

Option 2 IS exclusive:
A no-confidence motion can ONLY be moved in Lok Sabha.
The government is responsible only to Lok Sabha.
Only Lok Sabha can remove the government.
This is truly exclusive.

Option 3 is NOT exclusive:
Impeachment of the President can be started by EITHER House.
Not exclusive to Lok Sabha.

Key point:
Lok Sabha's unique power is over the government's survival — only it can bring down the government through no-confidence.
Key learnings →Legislature
42.
Indian Economy
In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
1. ADepartment of Consumer Affairs
2. BExpenditure Management Commission
3. CFinancial Stability and Development Council
4. DReserve Bank of India
Show answer
Answer: (D) Reserve Bank of India
The answer is (D) Reserve Bank of India.

This is straightforward. The RBI is India's central bank, and its primary job is maintaining price stability (controlling inflation).

How RBI controls inflation:

Sets the repo rate (the interest rate at which it lends to banks)

Uses tools like Open Market Operations (buying/selling government securities)

Manages money supply through CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) and SLR

The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meets regularly to decide policy rates

When inflation is high → RBI raises repo rate → borrowing becomes expensive → people spend less → demand falls → prices cool down.

Why the other options are wrong:

(A) Department of Consumer Affairs handles consumer protection, not monetary policy

(B) Expenditure Management Commission advises on government spending

(C) Financial Stability and Development Council coordinates among financial regulators but doesn't directly control inflation
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
43.
Indian Economy
With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB), which of the following statements are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is not correct:

Banks Board Bureau comprises the Chairman, three ex-officio members i.e. Secretary, Department of Public Enterprises, Secretary of the Department of Financial Services, and Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, and five expert members, two of which are from the private sector.

The Chairman is selected by the central government and the RBI governor does not head it.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct:

Banks Board Bureau recommends the selection of head for Public Sector Banks and other key personnel if required.

As it was based on the P J Nayak Committee recommendations it developed strategies for raising capital and improving the performance of PSBs.
Withdrawn from the question bankBanking and Financial System
44.
Indian Economy
With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:
1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
The answer is (C) Both are correct.

Convertible bonds are a hybrid — part bond (gives interest) + part stock option (can be converted to shares).

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

Because convertible bonds come with the bonus option of converting to shares, investors are willing to accept a LOWER interest rate.

It's like getting two benefits (guaranteed interest + potential stock upside), so the company pays less interest.

Regular bonds without this option need to offer higher interest to attract investors.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

When prices rise (inflation), company earnings and stock prices usually rise too.

Since you can convert your bond into shares, you benefit from this price increase.

This effectively protects you from inflation — your investment "keeps up" with rising prices.

This indexation means convertible bondholders have built-in inflation protection that regular bondholders don't.

Simple analogy:

A convertible bond is like buying a house with the option to convert it into a commercial property later if land prices go up — you get the safety of a house plus the upside potential.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
45.
Indian Economy
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth l and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both l and 2
The answer is (C) Both are correct.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
Your savings in banks, mutual funds, insurance, etc. don't just sit there.
Banks invest a chunk of it in government securities (G-secs).
So a portion of household savings effectively funds government borrowing.
If household savings drop, the government finds it harder to borrow.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
India's internal debt mainly consists of "dated securities" — long-term government bonds sold through auctions at market rates.
These made up about 68% of total public debt as of 2021.
They are indeed the largest component.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
46.
Indian Economy
With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads of Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The answer is (B) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

The RBI Governor is NOT the chairman of BBB.

The BBB has its own separate chairman.

Its members include the Secretary of Department of Financial Services,

Secretary of Department of Public Enterprises,

a Deputy Governor of RBI (not the Governor),

and three expert members.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

BBB's primary job is to recommend people for appointment as heads of public sector banks (Whole Time Directors and Chairman).

It acts as an independent body that selects qualified candidates.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

BBB also helps public sector banks develop business strategies and capital raising plans.

It advises on management structure, performance appraisal, and training programs.

Think of BBB as an independent "HR consultant" for public sector banks — it recommends leaders and advises on strategy, but the final decisions rest with the government.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
47.
Indian Economy
Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing"?
1. AConveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
2. BNon-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country.
3. CIgnoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development.
4. DMaking mandatory provision for environmental costs in a government project/programme.
Show answer
Answer: (A) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
The correct answer is (A) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound.

Greenwashing refers to the practice of conveying misleading or false information about how environmentally friendly a company, product, or service is.

It involves making exaggerated or unsubstantiated environmental claims in order to attract environmentally conscious consumers.

Examples of greenwashing include:

claiming products are “eco-friendly” without proof,

exaggerating environmental benefits,

using vague labels such as “natural” or “green,”

highlighting a minor environmental initiative while ignoring larger harmful practices.

The term “greenwashing” is derived from the word “whitewashing,” which means covering up wrongdoing through misleading information.

Companies may advertise pollution reduction efforts or sustainability measures even when they are not making meaningful environmental commitments.

Hence, Option A is correct.

Why other options are wrong:

(B) refers to exclusion of environmental costs in accounting or national income calculations, not greenwashing.

(C) refers to ignoring ecological consequences during development projects.

(D) refers to budgeting or provisioning for environmental costs in projects.

Answer: (A).
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
48.
Indian Economy
"Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?
1. AAsian Development Bank
2. BInternational Monetary Fund
3. CUnited Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
4. DWorld Bank
Show answer
Answer: (B) International Monetary Fund
The answer is (B) International Monetary Fund.

Think of the IMF as a global "emergency lender" for countries in financial trouble.

It has two key tools mentioned here:

Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI): Quick financial help for ANY member country facing an urgent balance of payments crisis (when a country can't pay its international bills). No long program needed — just fast cash.

Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): Similar quick help, but specifically for LOW-INCOME countries, with cheaper/easier terms.

A real-world example: Sri Lanka approached the IMF using these facilities when it ran out of money for food, fuel, and medicine.

None of the other options (ADB, UNEP, World Bank) operate these specific facilities.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
49.
Indian Economy
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
The answer is (C) Statements 1 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

NEER measures how strong your currency is against a basket of other currencies.

If NEER goes UP, the rupee has become stronger (appreciated).

Simple: NEER up = rupee stronger.

Statement 2 is WRONG (trap!):

When REER increases, Indian goods actually become MORE EXPENSIVE for foreigners.

So exports suffer.

Higher REER = LOSS of trade competitiveness, not improvement.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

REER = NEER adjusted for inflation differences.

If India's inflation is higher than other countries, REER will move differently from NEER, and the gap widens.

Even if the exchange rate stays the same, higher inflation at home makes your goods pricier abroad.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
50.
Indian Economy
With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms, operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The answer is (B) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

Foreign e-commerce companies can ONLY be "marketplace" platforms (like a mall where sellers set up shops).

They CANNOT sell their own goods.

This "inventory model" is banned for foreign FDI.

So Amazon India, for example, technically cannot sell its own products.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

There's a 25% rule.

If a seller buys more than 25% of its goods from the e-commerce company (or its group), that seller is considered "controlled" by the platform.

This would make it an inventory model, which is banned.

So the platform's ownership/control over big sellers is limited.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
51.
Indian Economy
Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India?
1. AAn Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
2. BA foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
3. CAn Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
4. DA foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
Show answer
Answer: (D) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
The answer is (D).

"Indirect Transfer" means: instead of directly selling assets in India, someone sells the SHARES of a foreign company that owns those Indian assets.

Example:

Foreign Company X owns Indian factories worth crores.

Instead of selling the factories directly, someone buys the shares of Company X.

Indirectly, the Indian assets changed hands.

This became a huge issue in the Vodafone case (2007).

India tried to tax Vodafone for buying shares of a foreign company that indirectly owned Indian telecom assets.

In 2012, India changed the law retroactively to tax such deals.

In 2021, the government reversed this to improve India's reputation for foreign investors.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
52.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
The answer is (A) Statements 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

When the US Federal Reserve tightens monetary policy (raises interest rates), US investments become more attractive.

Foreign investors pull their money out of countries like India and move it to "safe" US assets (Treasury bonds).

This outflow of money = capital flight from India.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

When capital flows out, India's rupee weakens against the dollar.

Companies that borrowed in dollars (ECBs) now need more rupees to repay the same dollar amount.

Their interest costs effectively increase because the rupee has depreciated.

So capital flight raises ECB costs.

Statement 3 is WRONG (says the opposite!):

Devaluation of the rupee INCREASES currency risk for ECBs, not decreases.

Example: If you borrowed $1M when $1 = ₹75, you owed ₹7.5 crore.

If the rupee falls to $1 = ₹80, you now owe ₹8 crore for the same loan.

More risk, not less!
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
53.
Indian Economy
Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?
1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2, 3 and 4 only
3. C1, 3 and 4 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
The answer is (A) Statements 1 and 2 only.

Real Sector = Activities that produce actual goods/services, contributing to GDP.
Financial Sector = Activities involving money, lending, borrowing — not producing physical goods.

Farmers harvesting crops = producing food = Real Sector. CORRECT.

Textile mills converting cotton to fabric = manufacturing = Real Sector. CORRECT.

Bank lending money = financial transaction, no physical goods created = Financial Sector. WRONG.

Issuing bonds overseas = raising money through financial instruments = Financial Sector. WRONG.

Easy trick: If it creates a physical product = Real. If it's about money moving around = Financial.
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
54.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A2 and 4
2. B3 and 5
3. C1, 3 and 4
4. D1 and 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4
The answer is (C) Statements 1, 3, and 4.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies.

Its GDP per capita tripled between 2002-2021.

It was one of few countries to post positive growth even during COVID-19 in 2020.

Statement 2 is WRONG:

Vietnam is a ONE-PARTY communist state, ruled by the Communist Party of Vietnam.

It is NOT a multi-party democracy.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

Vietnam's growth is driven by its integration into global supply chains and export-focused strategy.

It manufactures electronics, textiles, and other goods for global markets (Samsung, Nike, etc. have major factories there).

Statement 4 is CORRECT:

Low wages and a stable exchange rate attracted global manufacturers.

As wages rose in China and other East Asian countries, companies moved factories to Vietnam for cheaper labor.

Statement 5 is WRONG:

Vietnam's e-services/fintech sector is still developing.

Singapore and Indonesia lead in Southeast Asia's e-commerce, not Vietnam.
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
55.
Indian Economy
In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)?
1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B3 and 4 only
3. C1 and 2 only
4. D1, 2 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (A) Statements 1, 2, and 3.

The Coal Controller's Organization (CCO) was established in 1916 and is one of the oldest offices in India's coal sector.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
Under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008, the Coal Controller is the designated statistical authority for coal and lignite data. CCO conducts annual surveys and publishes Coal Statistics and the Coal Directory of India.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
CCO monitors the development progress of captive coal/lignite blocks allocated to companies.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
Under the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition & Development) Act, 1957, the Coal Controller is the authority that hears objections when the government notifies land acquisition in coal-bearing areas.

Statement 4 is WRONG:
CCO does NOT ensure timely delivery of coal to end users. Its role is about statistics, monitoring, regulation, and quality control — not logistics management.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
56.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.
Which of the statements given above are correct.
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The answer is (B) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), NOT RBI.

This is a common trick question.

RBI regulates banks; SEBI regulates securities markets and rating agencies.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

ICRA (Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency) is a public limited company.

It's listed on Indian stock exchanges.

It was originally set up by Moody's (the international rating agency) and Indian financial institutions.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency registered with SEBI.

Other Indian rating agencies include CRISIL, ICRA, CARE, and India Ratings.

Key takeaway:

SEBI regulates rating agencies, not RBI.

This distinction is tested frequently.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
57.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Option (d) is correct:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC), launched in 2015 at the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), promotes sustainable sanitation through partnerships and advocacy but is not funded by the World Health Organization (WHO).

Statement 2 is incorrect:

The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA), established in 1976, is an autonomous think tank under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, not an apex body, and it provides innovative solutions for urban challenges.

Since both statements are incorrect, options (a), (b), and (c) are eliminated.
Withdrawn from the question bankGovernment Schemes and Economic Institutions
58.
Indian Economy
In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?
1. ACentral Statistics Office
2. BDepartment for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
3. CLabour Bureau
4. DNational Technical Manpower Information System
Show answer
Answer: (C) Labour Bureau
The answer is (C) Labour Bureau.

The Labour Bureau (established in 1920) has been collecting and compiling labour statistics at both national and state levels.

One of its key publications is the annual report titled "Industrial Disputes, Closures, Retrenchments and Lay-Offs in Industries in India."

This report provides data on:

Work stoppages and their causes

Factory closures

Retrenchments (layoffs)

Lockouts

This information helps planners, policymakers, and the government maintain good relations between workers and management.

Why the other options are wrong:

(A) Central Statistics Office — handles general economic statistics

(B) DPIIT — promotes industry and trade

(D) National Technical Manpower Information System — deals with technical education data
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
59.
Indian Economy
With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 3
2. B2 and 4
3. C3 and 4
4. D1 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1 and 4
The answer is (D) Statements 1 and 4 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
The Tea Board is a statutory body, set up under Section 4 of the Tea Act, 1953.
It was constituted on April 1, 1954.

Statement 2 is WRONG:
The Tea Board is under the Ministry of COMMERCE, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
This is a common trick question.

Statement 3 is WRONG:
The Tea Board's head office is in KOLKATA (West Bengal), not Bengaluru.
This makes sense since West Bengal (Darjeeling, Dooars) is one of India's biggest tea-producing regions.

Statement 4 is CORRECT:
The Tea Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.
These offices promote Indian tea exports and act as liaison between foreign importers and Indian exporters.

Memory tip:
Tea Board = Ministry of Commerce, HQ in Kolkata, overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
60.
Indian Economy
With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:
1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
The answer is (A) Statements 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

NFTs can represent digital versions of physical assets.

Anything — drawings, photos, videos, music, even tweets — can be turned into an NFT.

This creates a digital ownership record for real-world or digital items.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

NFTs are unique digital tokens stored on a blockchain (like Ethereum).

Each NFT has a unique identification code and cannot be duplicated.

The blockchain records who owns each NFT.

Statement 3 is WRONG:

NFTs are NON-fungible, meaning each one is unique and not interchangeable.

One NFT is NOT equal in value to another NFT (unlike currency, where one ₹100 note = any other ₹100 note).

Because of this uniqueness, NFTs cannot be "traded at equivalency" and cannot work as a medium of commercial transactions like money.

Simple comparison:

Cryptocurrency (like Bitcoin) = fungible (each coin is identical).

NFTs = non-fungible (each is unique, like original paintings).
Key learnings →Money, Inflation, and Monetary Policy
61.
Indian Economy
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The answer is (B) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG (opposite!):
When inflation is HIGH, RBI wants to PULL money OUT of the system.
So it SELLS government securities (not buys).
Selling = people give money to RBI = less money in the economy = lower inflation.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
If the rupee is falling fast, RBI sells dollars from its reserves.
More dollars in market = dollar becomes cheaper = rupee strengthens.
Basic supply-demand.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
The chain:
US/EU rates fall -> foreign investors rush to India for better returns -> they need rupees -> rupee appreciates -> to prevent rupee from becoming too strong, RBI buys dollars and releases rupees.
Key learnings →Money, Inflation, and Monetary Policy
62.
Indian Economy
With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"?
1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
The answer is (A) Statements 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
The government can save on borrowing costs.
IIB coupon = fixed rate + inflation rate.
If the government controls inflation (say it drops from 4% to 2%), the effective interest it pays also drops.
Lower inflation = government pays less.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
Normal bonds give fixed returns.
If inflation rises, your real return shrinks.
But IIBs adjust with inflation — your principal gets multiplied by an inflation index.
Your investment keeps pace with rising prices.

Statement 3 is WRONG:
There is NO special tax benefit for IIBs.
Interest earned and capital gains are taxable under normal tax rules, just like any other investment.
Key learnings →Money, Inflation, and Monetary Policy
63.
Indian Economy
With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
The answer is (A) Statement 1 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

Capital expenditure (CapEx) is spending on things that benefit the company long-term — equipment, buildings, or technology.

Buying new software, computers, and tech upgrades all count as CapEx.

Statement 2 is WRONG:

Both debt financing (borrowing through bonds/loans) and equity financing (selling shares) are ways to RAISE capital — they are capital RECEIPTS (money coming in), not expenditure.

The money raised might later be spent as CapEx, but the act of raising funds is a receipt.

And both are capital receipts — not one capital and one revenue.
Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
64.
Environment
Which of the following is not a bird?
1. AGolden Mahseer
2. BIndian Nightjar
3. CSpoonbill
4. DWhite Ibis
Show answer
Answer: (A) Golden Mahseer
The answer is (A) Golden Mahseer.

This is a simple identification question:

Golden Mahseer is a FISH, not a bird!

"Mahseer" literally means mahi (fish) + sher (tiger) = "tiger among fish."

It's a large freshwater sport fish found in Indian rivers.

The others are all birds:

Indian Nightjar: A small nocturnal bird that makes a "jarring" sound at night

Spoonbill: A large wading bird with a distinctive spoon-shaped bill

White Ibis: A wetland bird with a long, curved beak

Memory tip: If you see "Mahseer" in any question, remember it's always a fish!
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
65.
Environment
Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
1. ACentral Water Commission
2. BCentral Ground Water Board
3. CCentral Ground Water Authority
4. DNational Water Development Agency
Show answer
Answer: (C) Central Ground Water Authority
The answer is (C) Central Ground Water Authority.

The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was set up under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Its job is to regulate and control groundwater development and management across India.

Why the other options are wrong:

(A) Central Water Commission — established in 1945, works under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

It was NOT constituted under the EPA, 1986.

(B) Central Ground Water Board — works under the Ministry of Jal Shakti for groundwater exploration and monitoring.

Not under EPA.

(D) National Water Development Agency — set up in 1982 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti for studying inter-basin water transfer.

Not under EPA.

Key distinction:

CGWA (Authority) is under EPA 1986.

CGWB (Board) is under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Don't confuse the two!
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
66.
Environment
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2
2. B2 only
3. C1 and 3
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2
The answer is (A) Statements 1 and 2.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, all wild animals that are hunted become government property. The Bombay High Court (2012) confirmed that wild animals, including tigers, are "government property for all purposes."

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

The law protects wild animals EQUALLY whether they're inside a national park or roaming outside in a village. A tiger has the same legal protection in a forest reserve as it does in someone's farmland.

Statement 3 is WRONG:

The law does NOT allow killing/capturing a wild animal just because someone FEARS it might become dangerous. There must be an ACTUAL danger — the animal must have actually become a danger to human life, or be diseased/disabled beyond recovery. Only then can the Chief Wildlife Warden authorize action.

Key difference:

"Apprehension of danger" (just fear) ≠ "Actual danger." Only actual danger justifies action.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
67.
Environment
Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
1. ACotton
2. BRice
3. CSugarcane
4. DWheat
Show answer
Answer: (B) Rice
The answer is (B) Rice.

Rice paddies are the biggest crop-related source of BOTH methane AND nitrous oxide:

Why methane?

Rice fields are flooded with water, creating oxygen-free conditions.

Bacteria in this waterlogged soil produce methane.

Rice plants act as "chimneys," channeling methane into the air.

Why nitrous oxide?

Both the soil and rice plants emit N2O.

Fertilizer use makes this worse.

These gases are far more potent than CO2 — methane is 80+ times and N2O is 273 times stronger at trapping heat over 20 years.

Cotton, sugarcane, and wheat don't produce both gases in significant amounts like rice does.
Key learnings →Climate Change
68.
Environment
"Climate Action Tracker, which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
1. ADatabase created by coalition of research organisations
2. BWing of "International Panel of Climate Change"
3. CCommittee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change"
4. DAgency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
Show answer
Answer: (A) Database created by coalition of research organisations
The answer is (A) Database created by a coalition of research organisations.

Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an INDEPENDENT scientific project, not part of any UN body or government organization.

It is run by TWO research organizations:

Climate Analytics

NewClimate Institute

What CAT does:

Tracks climate action by governments

Measures it against Paris Agreement goals (keeping warming below 2°C, ideally 1.5°C)

Covers 39 countries + EU (~85% of global emissions)

Has been running since 2009

Why other options are wrong:
(B) It's NOT part of IPCC (which assesses climate science)
(C) It's NOT a committee under UNFCCC (the climate treaty body)
(D) It's NOT funded by UNEP or World Bank
Key learnings →Climate Change
69.
Environment
Consider the following statements:
1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100".
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1, 2, 4 and 5
2. B1, 3 and 4 only
3. C2, 3 and 5 only
4. D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
The answer is (B) Statements 1, 3, and 4 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
The Climate Group is an international non-profit that drives climate action by building large networks of businesses and governments.

Statement 2 is WRONG:
EP100 was NOT launched with the International Energy Agency.
It was launched by The Climate Group in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy.
Don't confuse IEA with this.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
EP100 brings together companies committed to doubling their energy productivity — doing more with less energy, while cutting emissions.

Statement 4 is CORRECT:
Indian companies like Mahindra & Mahindra, Dalmia Cement, and JSW Cement are EP100 members.

Statement 5 is WRONG:
The Climate Group (not the International Energy Agency) serves as secretariat to the Under2 Coalition, which is a network of state/regional governments committed to Paris Agreement targets.
Key learnings →Climate Change
70.
Environment
With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B3 only
3. C1 and 2
4. D2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 2
The answer is (C) Statements 1 and 2.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
Gucchi (also called Morel mushroom) IS a fungus.
It's one of the most expensive mushrooms in the world.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
It grows naturally in the Himalayan forest areas of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jammu & Kashmir.
Locals collect them from the wild during a brief spring season.

Statement 3 is WRONG:
Gucchi mushrooms CANNOT be commercially cultivated.
That's precisely why they're so expensive!
They grow only in the wild and can only be collected by hand during a short season of a few weeks in spring.
The statement says they're commercially cultivated in northeast India, which is false — they grow in the NORTHWEST Himalayas.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
71.
Environment
"Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?
1. ARestoration of damaged coral reefs
2. BDevelopment of building materials using plant residues
3. CIdentification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
4. DProviding salt licks for wild animals in forest/protected areas
Show answer
Answer: (A) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
The answer is (A) Restoration of damaged coral reefs.

Biorock technology uses a clever trick to help damaged coral reefs grow back:

How it works: A low-voltage electrical current is passed through a metal structure placed underwater. This causes minerals from seawater (calcium carbonate/limestone) to naturally accumulate on the structure, creating a base for corals to attach and grow.

Corals on Biorock structures grow 3-5 times faster than normal!

It was invented in 1976 and has been used worldwide to:

Restore damaged coral reefs

Protect coastlines from erosion

Support marine ecosystems (fish, shellfish, etc.)

Build limestone barriers against rising sea levels

The other options are unrelated: (B) is about building materials, (C) is about shale gas, (D) is about wildlife management.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
72.
Environment
Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
1. Alfalfa
2. Amarnath
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1, 3 and 4 only
2. B1, 3, 5 and 6 only
3. C2, 4, 5 and 6 only
4. D1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1, 3 and 4 only
The answer is (A) Alfalfa, Chickpea, and Clover only (1, 3, and 4).

Nitrogen-fixing plants are those that can convert atmospheric nitrogen into usable form through bacteria (Rhizobium) in their roots.

Most nitrogen-fixing plants belong to the LEGUME family (Fabaceae).

CORRECT ones (nitrogen-fixers):

Alfalfa (lucerne): A legume. Has Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules that fix nitrogen.

Chickpea: A legume (dal/chana). Fixes nitrogen through root nodules.

Clover: A legume. Fixes nitrogen through symbiotic Rhizobium bacteria.

WRONG ones (NOT nitrogen-fixers):

Amaranth: NOT a legume. It's a grain/leafy vegetable family.

Purslane (Kulfa): NOT a legume. It's a succulent leafy vegetable.

Spinach: NOT a legume. It belongs to the Amaranthaceae family.

Simple rule: Legumes (plants that produce pods/dals) generally fix nitrogen. Non-legumes generally don't.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
73.
Environment
"If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth,

then surely wetlands function as its kidneys."

Which one of the following functions of wetlands

best reflects the above statement?
1. AThe water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
2. BAlgae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
3. CWetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
4. DAquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Show answer
Answer: (D) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
The answer is (D) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

The analogy is: Lungs filter air → Kidneys filter blood and remove waste.

Similarly, wetlands filter WATER — they remove pollutants, heavy metals, and excess nutrients from water flowing through them.

Aquatic plants in wetlands absorb these harmful substances through their roots, stems, and leaves, effectively "cleaning" the water.

This is why wetlands are called "Earth's kidneys" — they purify water naturally, just like kidneys purify blood.

Why other options don't fit the "kidney" analogy:

(A) Water cycle processes — that's more about circulation, not filtering

(B) Food chains — that's about ecology, not purification

(C) Sedimentation — that's about soil, not waste removal
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
74.
Environment
Certain species of which one of the following organisms

are well known as cultivators of fungi?
1. AAnt
2. BCockroach
3. CCrab
4. DSpider
Show answer
Answer: (A) Ant
The answer is (A) Ant.

Certain species of ANTS are well-known farmers of fungi! This is called "ant-fungus mutualism."

How it works:

Leafcutter ants cut pieces of leaves and carry them to their colony

They DON'T eat the leaves — instead, they use the leaves as FERTILIZER to grow fungus

The fungus garden is their actual food source (fed to larvae)

The ants carefully maintain these gardens — protecting from pests, removing decayed material, and adding fresh leaves

This is one of nature's most fascinating examples of agriculture by non-humans! Leafcutter ants have been "farming" for about 50 million years — long before humans started agriculture.

Cockroaches, crabs, and spiders are NOT known as fungus cultivators.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
75.
Environment
"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in :
1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (D) All three are correct.

SRI is a smarter way to grow rice using alternate wetting and drying (not continuous flooding):

Statement 1 is CORRECT (Less seed):
Traditional = 5 kg/acre.
SRI = only 2 kg/acre.
60% less seed because wider spacing is used.

Statement 2 is CORRECT (Less methane):
Methane is produced in continuously flooded fields (no oxygen = methane bacteria thrive).
SRI alternates wet/dry, reducing waterlogging and methane production.

Statement 3 is CORRECT (Less electricity):
Less water needed = less pumping = less electricity.
Studies show about 23% energy savings.

SRI is a win-win: better yields with less water, less seed, less energy, and fewer greenhouse gases.
Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
76.
Environment
Consider the following statements:
1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2
2. B2 only
3. C1 and 3
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
The answer is (B) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

India's largest solar park is Bhadla Solar Park in RAJASTHAN (Jodhpur district), not Gujarat.

It's spread over 14,000 acres and is actually the world's largest solar park.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

Cochin International Airport (CIAL) in Kerala became the world's FIRST fully solar-powered airport in 2015.

It won the UN's "Champion of the Earth" award in 2018.

Statement 3 is WRONG:

India's largest floating solar plant is in ANDHRA PRADESH (at NTPC Simhadri), not Goa.

It's a 25 MW project by BHEL covering 100 acres.

Memory tips:

Largest solar park = Bhadla, Rajasthan (not Gujarat)

Solar airport = Cochin, Kerala (correct!)

Largest floating solar = NTPC Simhadri, Andhra Pradesh (not Goa)
Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
77.
Environment
The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:
1. APromotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
2. BDevelopment of gardens using genetically modified flora
3. CCreation of mini forests in urban areas
4. DHarvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces.
Show answer
Answer: (C) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
The answer is (C) Creation of mini forests in urban areas.

The Miyawaki method, developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1980s, creates dense mini-forests in cities:

How it works:

Plant many NATIVE species very close together

Mix all forest layers — shrubs, small trees, tall trees — on a small plot

Plants compete for sunlight, so they grow UPWARD (not sideways)

Result: A forest that's 30x denser, grows 10x faster, and becomes self-sustaining (no maintenance needed) after just 3 years

Why it's popular for cities: You can create a mini-forest on a plot as small as a parking space! It improves air quality, reduces urban heat, supports biodiversity, and provides green spaces.

The other options have nothing to do with Miyawaki:

(A) is about farming

(B) is about GMOs

(D) is about wind energy.
Key learnings →Other Environmental Issues
78.
Environment
In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
1. The 24-hour mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1, 3 and 4
2. B1 and 4 only
3. C2, 3 and 4
4. D1 and 2 only
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 4 only
The answer is (B) Statements 1 and 4 only.

Statement 1 is CORRECT: WHO 2021 guidelines say:

PM2.5 annual average: should not exceed 5 µg/m³

PM2.5 24-hour average: should not exceed 15 µg/m³

(These are much stricter than India's current standards!)

Statement 2 is WRONG: Ozone pollution is HIGHEST during SUNNY weather, not bad weather. Ozone forms through chemical reactions that need SUNLIGHT (photochemical reactions). "Inclement weather" means bad/rainy weather — ozone is actually lower then.

Statement 3 is WRONG: PM10 particles can go deep into the lungs, but it's PM2.5 (the smaller particles) that can cross the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. PM10 is too big to enter the blood.

Statement 4 is CORRECT: Excess ground-level ozone irritates the respiratory system, triggers asthma attacks, reduces lung function, and can cause lung diseases.
Key learnings →Pollution
79.
Environment
With reference to polythylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottle made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 3
2. B2 and 4
3. C1 and 4
4. D2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 3
The answer is (A) Statements 1 and 3.

PET (Polyethylene Terephthalate) is the plastic used in most water bottles and food containers.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

PET fibers can be blended with wool and cotton to make "permanent-press" fabrics.

The PET reinforces the natural fibers, making clothes more durable, wrinkle-resistant, and longer-lasting.

Statement 2 is WRONG:

PET containers should NOT be used for alcoholic beverages.

Alcohol can interact with plastic, and regulations in many places (including India) prohibit selling liquor in plastic bottles due to health concerns.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

PET is one of the most recyclable plastics.

PET bottles can be recycled into new bottles, clothing, shoes, carpets, furniture, and automotive parts.

Statement 4 is WRONG:

Burning PET produces greenhouse gases (over 850 million tonnes globally from plastic production and incineration).

It is NOT emission-free.
Key learnings →Pollution
80.
Environment
Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B2 and 4 only
3. C4 only
4. D1, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 4 only
The answer is (B) Nitrogen oxide and Sulphur dioxide only (options 2 and 4).

Acid rain is caused by two main pollutants:

Sulphur dioxide (SO2) — from burning coal and industrial processes

Nitrogen oxides (NOx) — from vehicle exhaust and power plants

These gases rise into the atmosphere, react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form SULPHURIC ACID and NITRIC ACID. These acids mix with rain and fall as acid rain.

Why the other options are wrong:

Carbon monoxide (CO) — a dangerous gas but does NOT cause acid rain. It's a different pollutant that causes problems like reducing oxygen in blood.

Ozone (O3) — causes respiratory problems and is a greenhouse gas, but does NOT cause acid rain.

Memory formula: Acid rain = SO2 + NOx + water → Sulphuric acid + Nitric acid
Key learnings →Pollution
81.
Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:
1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. distinguish among species that look alike.
3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B3 only
3. C1 and 2
4. D2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 2 and 3
The answer is (D) Statements 2 and 3.

DNA barcoding is like a product barcode but for living organisms — a short, standard DNA sequence that identifies which species an organism belongs to.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

DNA barcoding CANNOT determine the age of a plant or animal.

It only identifies the SPECIES.

To determine age, you'd need other methods (tree rings, carbon dating, etc.).

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

DNA barcoding is excellent at telling apart species that LOOK alike.

For example, it can distinguish between very similar-looking butterfly species or fish species that are visually almost identical.

This is one of its main uses.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

In food processing, DNA barcoding can detect unwanted plant or animal materials.

For example, it was used to find contaminants in barley tea exported from China.

It can identify if fish sold as one species is actually a cheaper substitute — helping catch food fraud.

Simple analogy:

DNA barcoding is like scanning a barcode at a store — it tells you WHAT the product is, not how old it is.
Key learnings →Biotechnology
82.
Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media?
1. AA hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
2. BA spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
3. CA missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
4. DA spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Show answer
Answer: (C) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
The Fractional Orbital Bombardment System places a weapon into a partial or fractional orbit around Earth and then deorbits it before a full orbit is completed so it can strike a terrestrial target from an unexpected direction. Therefore option C is correct; the other options describe unrelated space or planetary missions.
Key learnings →Defence
83.
Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B3 only
3. C1 and 2
4. D2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 2 and 3
The answer is (D) Statements 2 and 3.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

Nanoparticles DO exist naturally!

They're found in:

Interplanetary dust falling on Earth

Atmospheric dust

Volcanic ash

Ocean spray

Natural minerals (iron oxides, gold, silver nanoparticles)

Viruses are also nanoparticle-sized

They are NOT only man-made.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

Metallic oxide nanoparticles are widely used in cosmetics:

Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide → used in sunscreens for UV protection

Silver nanoparticles → used for antimicrobial properties

Gold nanoparticles → used in anti-aging products

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

Nanoparticles from commercial products can be harmful when they enter the environment.

Workers who manufacture nanomaterials face occupational exposure, and consumers can be exposed during product use.

Due to their tiny size, nanoparticles can enter the body through skin, lungs, or ingestion and may cause toxic effects.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials
84.
Science and Technology
With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 3 only
The answer is (B) Statement 3 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:
Joining ABDM is VOLUNTARY for both hospitals (private and public) and citizens.
No one is forced to adopt it.

Statement 2 is WRONG:
Since it's voluntary, it doesn't aim to cover every citizen.
People choose whether to create an ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) or not.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
ABDM creates seamless portability across India.
Your health records can be accessed anywhere in the country.
A record created in Delhi can be seen by a doctor in Chennai.

Key point:
ABDM = voluntary digital health platform with nationwide portability.
Key learnings →Health
85.
Science and Technology
In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
The answer is (B) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

Covishield is NOT an mRNA vaccine.

It uses a chimpanzee adenovirus (a harmless virus modified to carry coronavirus spike protein instructions).

It's a viral vector vaccine, similar to AstraZeneca's vaccine.

mRNA vaccines are Pfizer and Moderna.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

Sputnik V (Russia) is a viral vector vaccine.

It uses two different human adenoviruses (Ad26 and Ad5) to deliver the coronavirus spike protein gene.

"Vector" means using a harmless virus as a delivery vehicle.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

COVAXIN (by Bharat Biotech) uses the actual coronavirus that has been killed/inactivated.

Your body sees the dead virus, learns to fight it, but can't get infected.

This is the "inactivated pathogen" approach — the oldest vaccine-making technique.

Quick comparison:

Covishield = viral vector

Sputnik = viral vector

COVAXIN = inactivated virus

Pfizer/Moderna = mRNA.
Key learnings →Health
86.
Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
1. AThey protect the body from environmental allergens.
2. BThey alleviate the body's pain and inflammation.
3. CThey act as immunosuppressants in the body.
4. DThey protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
Show answer
Answer: (D) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
The answer is (D) They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens.

B cells and T cells are two types of white blood cells (lymphocytes) that form the core of your body's ADAPTIVE immune system — the part that specifically fights disease-causing organisms (pathogens).

How they work together:

B cells: Produce ANTIBODIES — special proteins that recognize and neutralize specific pathogens in your blood (antibody-mediated immunity)

T cells: Directly attack infected cells and also HELP B cells produce antibodies (cell-mediated immunity)

Together, they provide "acquired immunity" — your body learns to fight specific germs and remembers them for future attacks.

Why other options are wrong:

(A) Allergen response involves different cells (mast cells, IgE antibodies)

(B) Pain and inflammation are managed by different mechanisms (prostaglandins, NSAIDs)

(C) They are immune ACTIVATORS, not immunosuppressants
Key learnings →Health
87.
Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (D) All three are correct.

Biofilms are thin layers of microorganisms (mostly bacteria) that stick to surfaces and form a protective "shield" around themselves.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
Biofilms can form on medical implants like catheters, artificial joints, and heart valves inside the human body.
This is a major cause of hospital infections.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
Biofilms love food processing surfaces.
They can form on equipment, contaminating food products.
This is a constant hygiene concern in food factories.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
The biofilm acts like armor for bacteria.
Antibiotics that would normally kill bacteria struggle to penetrate this protective layer.
This makes biofilm infections very difficult to treat.

Think of biofilm as bacteria building a fort around themselves — it protects them from antibiotics, cleaning agents, and harsh conditions.
Key learnings →Health
88.
Science and Technology
Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. C1 and 3
4. D2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3
The answer is (C) Statements 1 and 3.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

Probiotics contain both helpful bacteria (like Lactobacillus)

AND yeast (like Saccharomyces boulardii).

Both types can benefit gut health.

Statement 2 is WRONG:

Many probiotic organisms already live NATURALLY in your gut!

They're not foreign organisms.

Foods like yogurt contain bacteria similar to what's already in your body.

The statement wrongly says they don't naturally occur in the gut.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

Probiotics can help people who are lactose intolerant (can't digest milk sugar).

They help break down lactose (milk sugar) both in dairy products and in your small intestine, making milk products easier to digest.

Simple summary:

Probiotics = helpful bacteria + yeast that naturally exist in your gut and help with digestion, including milk sugars.
Key learnings →Health
89.
Science and Technology
Consider following communication technologies:
1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network
Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (D) All three are Short-Range Devices.

Short-Range Devices (SRDs) are radio/wireless devices with LOW power and LIMITED range.

Because of their short range, they rarely interfere with other radio services.

CCTV: Wireless CCTV cameras transmit video over short distances. Yes, it's an SRD.

RFID (Radio Frequency Identification): Used in metro cards, inventory tags, access cards. Works over very short distances (centimeters to a few meters). Yes, it's an SRD.

WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network): Your Wi-Fi at home! It works within a limited area (your house/office). Yes, it's an SRD.

Other examples of SRDs:

Bluetooth devices

Remote controls

Wireless microphones

Garage door openers

Car key fobs.
Key learnings →IT & Computing
90.
Science and Technology
With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements:
1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (D) All three statements are correct.

Web 3.0 is the proposed next version of the internet, built on blockchain technology:

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
In Web 3.0, YOU control your own data.
Unlike today (Web 2.0) where companies like Google and Facebook own your data, Web 3.0 aims to put data ownership back in users' hands.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
Since Web 3.0 runs on blockchain, social networks can be blockchain-based too — decentralized, with no single company controlling them.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
Web 3.0 is meant to be run collectively by its users, not controlled by big corporations.
Think of it as the internet owned by everyone instead of a few tech giants.

Simple comparison:
Web 1.0 = read-only (static websites).
Web 2.0 = read-write (social media, but companies control it).
Web 3.0 = read-write-own (users control everything through blockchain).
Key learnings →IT & Computing
91.
Science and Technology
With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements:
1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (D) All three are correct.

SaaS (Software as a Service) means using software over the internet (in the "cloud") instead of installing it on your computer.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
SaaS platforms are flexible.
Users can customize the interface (change how it looks), modify data fields (change what information appears), and turn features on/off.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
Since SaaS works through the internet, you can access your data from any device — computer, phone, or tablet — anywhere with an internet connection.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
Web-based email services like Outlook.com, Hotmail, and Yahoo Mail are classic examples of SaaS.
You don't install anything — you just use them through your browser.

Other SaaS examples you might know:

Google Docs

Zoom

Slack

Netflix.
Key learnings →IT & Computing
92.
Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned?
1. ACloud Services
2. BQuantum Computing
3. CVisible Light Communication Technologies
4. DWireless Communication Technologies
Show answer
Answer: (B) Quantum Computing
The answer is (B) Quantum Computing.

A "qubit" (quantum bit) is the basic unit of information in quantum computing, just like a "bit" is the basic unit in regular computing.

Key difference:

Regular bit: Can be either 0 OR 1 (one at a time)

Qubit: Can be 0, 1, or BOTH at the same time (called superposition)

This "both at once" property is what makes quantum computers potentially millions of times faster than regular computers for certain problems.

The other options (cloud services, visible light communication, wireless tech) are not related to qubits.
Key learnings →IT & Computing
93.
Science and Technology
Consider the following:
1. Aarogya Setu
2. CoWIN
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA
Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2, 3 and 4 only
3. C1, 3 and 4 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The answer is (D) All four are built on open-source platforms.

Open-source means the software's code is publicly available for anyone to view, use, and modify.

Aarogya Setu: COVID contact-tracing app. Made open-source after launch.

CoWIN: COVID vaccination registration portal. Made open-source in July 2021.

DigiLocker: Government platform to store important documents digitally. Uses multiple open-source technologies.

DIKSHA: National education platform by NCERT. Built on open architecture and open access principles from the start (2017).

All four platforms were either built using open-source technology from the beginning or were later made open-source.
Key learnings →IT & Computing
94.
Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media?
1. AA hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
2. BA spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
3. CA missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
4. DA spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Show answer
Answer: (C) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
The answer is (C).

A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) is a weapons delivery system:

Step 1: A missile is launched into a low Earth orbit (goes around the Earth)
Step 2: It orbits like a satellite
Step 3: Just before reaching its target, it fires its engines to slow down and DROP out of orbit onto the target

The scary part: Until the weapon actually deorbits and starts falling, you can't tell where it's aimed. The flight path doesn't reveal the target. This makes it very hard to defend against.

China was suspected of testing this system in October 2021.

The other options describe unrelated things:

(A) describes asteroid defense

(B) describes planet landing

(D) describes comet exploration (like the Rosetta mission)
Withdrawn from the question bankSpace
95.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Consider the following countries:
1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
1. A1, 2 and 4
2. B1 and 3
3. C2 and 5
4. D3, 4 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 5
The answer is (C) Azerbaijan and Uzbekistan (options 2 and 5).

The Organization of Turkic States (formerly Turkic Council) was founded in 2009 to promote cooperation among Turkic-speaking nations.

Members:

Azerbaijan (founding member, 2009) ✓

Kazakhstan (founding member)

Kyrgyzstan (founding member)

Turkey/Türkiye (founding member)

Uzbekistan (joined 2019) ✓

From the list:

Armenia — NOT a member (it's not a Turkic-speaking country; it actually has tense relations with Turkey and Azerbaijan)

Croatia — NOT a member (European/Slavic country, not Turkic)

Romania — NOT a member (European/Romance language country, not Turkic)

Only Azerbaijan (2) and Uzbekistan (5) are members. The key is that all members are Turkic-speaking nations.
Key learnings →Extended Neighbourhood and Other Regions
96.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Consider the following statements:
1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2
2. B2 only
3. C2 and 3
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 3
The answer is (C) Statements 2 and 3.

Statement 1 is WRONG:

Bidibidi is in UGANDA, not Kenya.

It's specifically in the West Nile area of northwestern Uganda.

It's the second-largest refugee settlement in the world.

The question says "north-western Kenya" — wrong country!

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

Bidibidi was opened in August 2016 to host refugees fleeing the civil war in South Sudan.

It houses over 270,000 South Sudanese refugees.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:

Dadaab refugee complex is in Kenya and primarily houses people who fled the civil war in Somalia.

It was first established in 1991 when Somali refugees crossed into Kenya.

A large influx also came in 2011 during famine.

Key locations to remember:

Bidibidi = Uganda = South Sudanese refugees

Dadaab = Kenya = Somali refugees
Key learnings →Immediate Neighbourhood (South Asia)
97.
World Affairs (International Relations)
With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements:
1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A3 only
2. B1 and 3
3. C2 and 3
4. D1 and 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 3 only
The answer is (A) Statement 3 only.

Statement 1 is WRONG:
The UN Credentials Committee is set up by the UN GENERAL ASSEMBLY, not the Security Council.
It's appointed at the beginning of each regular session and has 9 members proposed by the President of the General Assembly.

Statement 2 is WRONG:
The Committee does NOT meet in March, June, and September.
The General Assembly's regular sessions run from September to December each year.
There's no fixed March-June-September schedule for the Credentials Committee.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
The Committee examines the credentials (official papers proving identity and authority) of all Member State representatives and reports its findings to the General Assembly for approval.
Credentials must be signed by the Head of State/Government or the Foreign Minister.

This committee was in the news when questions arose about who should represent Afghanistan and Myanmar after political upheavals in those countries.
Key learnings →Multilateral System
98.
World Affairs (International Relations)
With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observe status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain mission at the UN headquarters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (D) All three are correct.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to non-member STATES.
For example, Palestine and the Vatican (Holy See) are non-member observer states.

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
Inter-governmental organizations can also seek observer status.
For example, the International Solar Alliance got UNGA observer status in December 2021.
Other examples: African Union, EU, etc.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
Permanent Observers can maintain their own diplomatic missions at UN headquarters in New York.
They can participate in sessions and workings of the General Assembly, though they cannot vote.

Key points about observers:

Can participate in discussions but CANNOT vote

The Sixth Committee (Legal) reviews all applications

Both states and intergovernmental organizations can get observer status
Key learnings →Multilateral System
99.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Consider the following:
1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
India is a member of which of the above?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (D) India is a member of all three.

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB):
India is a FOUNDING member with the second-highest voting share (after China).
AIIB started in 2016, headquartered in Beijing.

Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR):
India joined in 2018.
MTCR is an informal group of countries that limit the spread of missiles and missile technology.
It was formed in 1987.

Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
India became a full member in 2017 (along with Pakistan) at the Astana summit.
SCO deals with political, economic, and security cooperation, headquartered in Beijing.

Memory trick for India's memberships:

AIIB: Founding member (2016)

MTCR: Joined 2018

SCO: Full member since 2017

NSG: India has APPLIED but is NOT yet a member (China blocks it)
Key learnings →Multilateral System
100.
World Affairs (International Relations)
With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
The answer is (C) Both statements are correct.

Statement 1 is CORRECT:

The G20 Common Framework was jointly endorsed by G20 countries

AND the Paris Club (a group of creditor nations that deals with debt of developing countries).

Statement 2 is CORRECT:

It specifically targets Low-Income Countries drowning in unsustainable debt.

Created during COVID-19 to help these countries ease their debt burden so they could spend money fighting the pandemic instead.

In simple terms:

Rich countries agreed to help poor countries manage their debt during COVID so they could focus on saving lives.
Key learnings →Multilateral System
101.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?
1. AIt is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
2. BChina and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
3. CA permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
4. DThrough International Court of Justice declared them as no man's land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.
Show answer
Answer: (B) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
The answer is (B) China and Japan dispute over these islands in the East China Sea.

The Senkaku Islands (called Diaoyu by China) are a group of uninhabited islands in the East China Sea.

Both Japan and China claim ownership:

Japan's claim: Japan controlled them from 1895, considers them Japanese territory

China's claim: China says it discovered them in the 14th century and they were taken during Japan's imperial expansion

This is a territorial/maritime dispute that regularly causes tensions between the two countries.

Why other options are wrong:

(A) They're natural islands, not artificial ones, and they're in the EAST China Sea, not South China Sea

(C) There's no permanent US military base there

(D) No ICJ ruling has been made about them

Don't confuse:

Senkaku = East China Sea (Japan-China dispute).

Spratly/Paracel = South China Sea (multi-country dispute).
Key learnings →News Through Maps

	King	Dynasty
1.	Nannuka	Chandela
2.	Jayashakti	Paramara
3.	Nagabhata II	Gurjara-Pratihara
4.	Bhoja	Rashtrakuta

	Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts	Location in the State of
1.	Dhauli	Odisha
2.	Erragudi	Andhra Pradesh
3.	Jaugada	Madhya Pradesh
4.	Kalsi	Karnataka

	Historical Person	Known as
1.	Aryadeva	Jaina scholar
2.	Dignaga	Buddhist scholar
3.	Nathamuni	Vaishnava scholar

	Peak	Mountains
1.	Namcha Barwa	Garhwal Himalaya
2.	Nanda Devi	Kumaon Himalaya
3.	Nokrek	Sikkim Himalaya

	Reservoirs	States
1.	Ghataprabha	Telangana
2.	Gandhi Sagar	Madhya Pradesh
3.	Indira Sagar	Andhra Pradesh
4.	Maithon	Chhattisgarh

	Wetland/Lake	Location
1.	Hokera Wetland	Punjab
2.	Renuka Wetland	Himachal Pradesh
3.	Rudrasagar Lake	Tripura
4.	Sasthamkotta Lake	Tamil Nadu

	Region often mentioned in the news	Country
1.	Anatolia	Turkey
2.	Amhara	Ethiopia
3.	Cabo Delgado	Spain
4.	Catalonia	Italy

102.

World Affairs (International Relations)

Consider the following pairs:

	Country	Important reason for being in the news recently
1.	Chad	Setting up of permanent military base by China
2.	Guinea	Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
3.	Lebanon	Severe and prolonged economic depression
4.	Tunisia	Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

AOnly one pair
BOnly two pairs
COnly three pairs
DAll four pairs

Show answer

Answer: (C) Only three pairs

The answer is (C) Three pairs are correctly matched (Guinea, Lebanon, Tunisia).

Pair 1 is WRONG:

Chad is NOT where China set up a military base.

Reports in 2021 said China was trying to build a military base in EQUATORIAL GUINEA (Atlantic coast of Africa), not Chad.

Pair 2 is CORRECT:

In September 2021, Guinea's military staged a coup, captured the President, dissolved the government, and suspended the constitution.

The African Union suspended Guinea's membership.

Pair 3 is CORRECT:

Lebanon has been suffering a severe and prolonged economic crisis — the World Bank called it a "deliberate depression."

The country faces unprecedented financial collapse affecting its people and stability.

Pair 4 is CORRECT:

In July 2021, Tunisia's President suspended Parliament and fired the Prime Minister after protests over COVID handling and economic problems.

He later extended the suspension and eventually dissolved Parliament in March 2022.

Key learnings →News Through Maps

103.
World Affairs (International Relations)
With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
The answer is (D) All three are correct.

These are key provisions of UNCLOS (United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea):

Statement 1 is CORRECT:
Every coastal state can claim a territorial sea up to 12 nautical miles from its baseline. Within this zone, the state has full sovereignty (like its land territory).

Statement 2 is CORRECT:
ALL ships — whether from coastal or landlocked countries — have the right of "innocent passage" through any country's territorial sea. "Innocent passage" means passing through peacefully without threatening the coastal state's security. Even a landlocked country like Nepal can send its ships through India's territorial waters.

Statement 3 is CORRECT:
The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline. In this zone, the coastal state has rights over natural resources (fishing, oil, minerals) but other countries can navigate freely.

Quick summary of maritime zones:

Territorial Sea: 0-12 nautical miles (full sovereignty)

EEZ: up to 200 nautical miles (resource rights only)

Continental Shelf: Can extend beyond 200 nm in some cases
Key learnings →Thematic / Cross-cutting Issues
104.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code'?
1. AIt is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
2. BIt is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
3. CIt is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
4. DIt is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
Show answer
Answer: (A) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
The answer is (A) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

The Polar Code refers to the International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters adopted by the International Maritime Organization.

The Polar Code came into force on 1 January 2017 and provides a mandatory framework for ships operating in Arctic and Antarctic waters. It was developed to ensure:

safe ship operation in polar regions,

protection of the fragile polar environment,

proper training and competence of seafarers.

The Code addresses issues related to:

ship design and construction,

equipment standards,

operational procedures,

search and rescue,

environmental protection measures.

The Polar Code is implemented through international conventions such as:

SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea),

MARPOL (Prevention of Pollution from Ships),

STCW (Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers).

Hence, Option A is correct.

Why other options are wrong:

(B) There is no agreement among polar countries specifically called the Polar Code regarding territorial demarcation.

(C) The Polar Code is not a research guideline for scientists working in polar regions.

(D) It is not a trade or security agreement under the Arctic Council.

Answer: (A).
Key learnings →Thematic / Cross-cutting Issues

End of paper · 104 questions · 2021 paper →

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