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UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) 2024 · General Studies Paper I102 questions

UPSC Prelims GS Paper I · 2024

102 questions
2 hours
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100 with key learnings

Data as of 11 Oct 2026. Also: Booster PYQs of 2024 by subject.

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1.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?
1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1, 2 and 3
4. DNone of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: (b) Shakyamuni and Tathagata (2 and 3 only).

Shakyamuni means 'Sage of the Shakya clan' — a well-known title for Gautama Buddha.

Tathagata means 'one who has come from Thusness' — a term Buddha used to refer to himself.

Nayaputta is NOT an epithet of Buddha — it is an epithet of Mahavira (the Jain teacher).

Other names for Mahavira include:

Muni

Samana

Nigantha

Bhagavan

Easy trick: 'Naya' in Nayaputta relates to Jnata (his clan) — think Jain, not Buddhist.
Key learnings →Mahajanapadas, Buddhism, Jainism and Pre-Mauryan India

Ancient and Medieval Indian History

Consider the following information:

	Archaeological Site	State	Description
1.	Chandraketugarh	Odisha	Trading Port town
2.	Inamgaon	Maharashtra	Chalcolithic site
3.	Mangadu	Kerala	Megalithic site
4.	Salihundam	Andhra Pradesh	Rock-cut cave shrines

In which of the above rows is given information correctly matched?

A1 and 2
B2 and 3
C3 and 4
D1 and 4

Show answer

Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b) Rows 2 and 3 are correct.

Row 1 — Chandraketugarh in Odisha as a trading port: ✗ WRONG.

Chandraketugarh is actually in West Bengal (24 Parganas district), not Odisha.

Row 2 — Inamgaon in Maharashtra as a Chalcolithic site: ✓ CORRECT.

It's in the Bhima river valley, dating to about 3300-1300 BCE.

Row 3 — Mangadu in Kerala as a Megalithic site: ✓ CORRECT.

It has megaliths dating from about 1000 BC to 100 BC.

Row 4 — Salihundam in Andhra Pradesh as rock-cut cave shrines: ✗ WRONG.

Salihundam has Buddhist monuments (stupas, viharas, chaityas), but they are NOT rock-cut caves.

Key learnings →Pre-History and Harappan Civilization

3.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Indus Valley Civilization was highly developed, and it must have taken thousands of years to reach that stage.

It was a predominantly secular civilization and even though religious elements were present, it did not dominate the scene.

The economy of the Indus Valley Civilization depended upon crops and animal husbandry.

The main crops grown were:

rice

wheat

melons

dates

vegetables, mainly legumes

cotton

Large granaries were also found.

Cotton later became the stimulus for the growth of the textile Industry.
Withdrawn from the question bankPre-History and Harappan Civilization
4.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?
1. AKavyalankara
2. BNatyashastra
3. CMadhyama-vyayoga
4. DMahabhashya
Show answer
Answer: (C) Madhyama-vyayoga
Correct Answer: (c) Madhyama-vyayoga.

Bhasa was one of the earliest and most important Sanskrit playwrights.

His works include:

Madhyamavyayoga

Dutavakyam

Balacharita

Charudatta, among others.

The other options belong to different authors:

Kavyalankara — by Bhamaha (a work on literary criticism).

Natyashastra — by Bharata Muni (the foundational text on performing arts).

Mahabhashya — by Patanjali (a commentary on Panini's grammar).

Easy way to remember: Bhasa = plays/drama.

If you see a drama-related title among the options, that's likely Bhasa's work.
Key learnings →The Gupta Empire
5.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Consider the following statements:
1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Correct Answer: (b) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1: There are no parables in the Upanishads — ✗ WRONG.

The Upanishads DO contain parables and stories.

They often use narrative examples to explain complex philosophical ideas (like the story of Nachiketa in the Katha Upanishad).

Statement 2: Upanishads were composed before the Puranas — ✓ CORRECT.

The Upanishads are part of Vedic literature (later Vedic period), while the Puranas were composed much later.

The chronological order is:

Vedas

Brahmanas

Aranyakas

Upanishads

(much later) Puranas.
Key learnings →Vedic Age
6.
Ancient and Medieval Indian History
Who of the following rulers of medieval India

gave permission to the Portuguese

to build a fort at Bhatkal?
1. AKrishnadevaraya
2. BNarasimha Saluva
3. CMuhammad Shah III
4. DYusuf Adil Shah
Show answer
Answer: (A) Krishnadevaraya
Correct Answer: (a) Krishnadevaraya.

Krishnadevaraya (ruled 1509–1530) was the greatest ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire and had friendly relations with the Portuguese.

In 1510, Portuguese Governor Albuquerque requested permission to build a fort at Bhatkal, which Krishnadevaraya granted.

Why the friendly relations?

Krishnadevaraya benefited from Portuguese trade, especially the import of horses (crucial for his military) and other goods.
Key learnings →Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms
7.
Modern Indian History
With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Correct Answer: (b) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1:
Under Ryotwari, peasants were exempted during bad harvests — ✗ WRONG.
There was no such exemption.
Peasants were forced to pay revenue even during famines, which was one of the cruelties of the system.

Statement 2:
Under Permanent Settlement, if the Zamindar failed to pay on time, he could lose his Zamindari — ✓ CORRECT.
Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal in 1793.
If a Zamindar could not pay the fixed revenue by the due date, his land would be auctioned off.

Key contrast:

Ryotwari = peasant pays directly to government (no middleman).

Permanent Settlement = Zamindar collects from peasants, pays government a fixed amount.
Key learnings →British Administration and Economic Impact
8.
Modern Indian History
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
1. AC. Rajagopalachari
2. BDr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. CT.T. Krishnamachari
4. DDr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Show answer
Answer: (D) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Correct Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha.

The Constituent Assembly's first meeting was on 9 December 1946.

Following the French practice, the oldest member — Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha — was elected as the temporary (provisional) President.

Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Assembly.

Easy way to remember:

'Sinha came first, then Prasad' — the oldest member presides temporarily until a permanent president is elected.
Key learnings →Freedom and Partition (1939-1947)
9.
Modern Indian History
Consider the following pairs:

Party Its Leader

1. Bhartiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

2. Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari

3. Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram

4. Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. COnly three
4. DAll four
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two
Correct Answer: (b) Only two pairs are correct (Pairs 1 and 3).

Let's check each pair:

Pair 1 — Bharatiya Jana Sangh & Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee: ✓ CORRECT. He founded it in 1951.

Pair 2 — Socialist Party & C. Rajagopalachari: ✗ WRONG. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party, not the Socialist Party. The Socialist Party was linked to leaders like Ram Manohar Lohia and Jayaprakash Narayan.

Pair 3 — Congress for Democracy & Jagjivan Ram: ✓ CORRECT. He founded it in 1977 after breaking away from Indira Gandhi's Congress during the Emergency.

Pair 4 — Swatantra Party & Acharya Narendra Dev: ✗ WRONG. The Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari (in 1959). Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Congress Socialist Party.

Easy trick: Notice that Pairs 2 and 4 swap the leaders — Rajagopalachari goes with Swatantra, not Socialist Party. That's the trap in this question.
Key learnings →Gandhian Phase I (1919-1929)
10.
Modern Indian History
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Correct Answer: (a) Statement 1 only.

Statement 1: The 1935 Act proposed an All-India Federation of British Indian Provinces and Princely States — ✓ CORRECT.

However, this federation never actually came into existence because the required number of princely states did not agree to join.

Statement 2: Defence and Foreign Affairs were under the federal legislature — ✗ WRONG.

Under the 1935 Act, Defence, External Affairs, and Ecclesiastical Affairs were RESERVED subjects kept under the Governor-General's direct control, not the legislature.

This is called 'Dyarchy at the Centre.'

The 1935 Act introduced dyarchy at the Centre (some subjects with ministers, some reserved with Governor-General) and abolished dyarchy in the provinces (giving them full autonomy).
Key learnings →Gandhian Phase II (1929-1939)
11.
Art and Culture
Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:
1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. COnly three
4. DAll four
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two
Correct Answer: (b) Only two.

Of the four listed UNESCO World Heritage Sites, only TWO were added in 2023:

Shantiniketan (Tagore's university town in West Bengal)

Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (temples in Karnataka).

The other two were added much earlier:

Rani-ki-Vav (Gujarat) — inscribed in 2014.

Mahabodhi Temple Complex, Bodh Gaya (Bihar) — inscribed in 2002.

The trap: All four are genuine UNESCO sites, so if you only know they're on the list but not WHEN they were added, you might pick 'All four.'
Key learnings →Cultural Heritage and Institutions
12.
Art and Culture
Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?
1. AChhau dance
2. BDurga Puja
3. CGarba dance
4. DKumbh mela
Show answer
Answer: (C) Garba dance
Correct Answer: (c) Garba dance.

Garba of Gujarat was the most recent Indian addition to UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage list, inscribed in December 2023.

The other three were added earlier:

Chhau dance — inscribed in 2010.

Kumbh Mela — inscribed in 2017.

Durga Puja — inscribed in 2021.

Easy way to remember: The question asks for the LATEST, so you need to know the year of inscription, not just whether they're on the list.
Key learnings →Cultural Heritage and Institutions
13.
Art and Culture
Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on :
1. APrajnaparamita Sutra
2. BVisuddhimagga
3. CSarvastivada Vinaya
4. DLalitavistara
Show answer
Answer: (C) Sarvastivada Vinaya
Correct Answer: (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya.

Sangabhuti was an Indian Buddhist monk who travelled to China in the late 4th century AD.

He wrote a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya (the monastic rules of the Sarvastivada school of Buddhism).

Many Indian Buddhist monks went to China to translate texts and spread Buddhism — Sangabhuti was one of them.

The Sarvastivada school was one of the major early Buddhist schools, and its Vinaya (discipline/rules) texts were important for monastic life.
Key learnings →Indian Languages and Literature
14.
Geography
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I

Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II

At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. ABothe Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (A) Bothe Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Correct Answer: (a) Both correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Statement I: The troposphere is much thicker at the equator (~~18 km) than at the poles (~~8 km) — ✓ CORRECT.

Statement II: Strong convection currents at the equator push heat to great heights — ✓ CORRECT.

Why II explains I:

The equator gets intense solar heating, which creates powerful upward air currents (convection).

These currents push the top of the troposphere higher, making it thicker.

At the poles, with less heating, convection is weaker and the troposphere is thinner.

Key fact: The tropopause temperature is about -80°C over the equator and -45°C over the poles.
Key learnings →Climatology
15.
Geography
With reference to 'Coriolis force', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: (c) Both statements are correct.

Statement 1: Coriolis force increases with wind velocity — ✓ CORRECT.

The faster the wind blows, the more it gets deflected.

Statement 2: Coriolis force is maximum at the poles and zero at the equator — ✓ CORRECT.

It's directly proportional to the sine of latitude.

Key facts about Coriolis force:

It deflects winds to the RIGHT in the Northern Hemisphere and to the LEFT in the Southern Hemisphere.

It's zero at the equator (that's why tropical cyclones don't form right at the equator — there's no Coriolis force to spin the winds).

Named after French physicist Gaspard-Gustave de Coriolis (1835).
Key learnings →Climatology
16.
Geography
With reference to 'water vapour', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Correct Answer: (a) Statement 1 only.

Statement 1: Water vapour decreases with altitude — ✓ CORRECT.

Water vapour is concentrated in the lower atmosphere and reduces as you go higher.

Statement 2: Water vapour is maximum at the poles — ✗ WRONG.

It's the opposite — water vapour is maximum near the equator (warm, wet tropics — up to 4% of air by volume) and minimum at the poles and deserts (less than 1%).

Key fact: Water vapour decreases both with altitude AND from equator to poles.

It also acts as a natural blanket — absorbing solar radiation and trapping earth's heat.
Key learnings →Climatology
17.
Geography
Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II : Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct.

Statement I: The atmosphere is heated MORE by solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation — ✗ WRONG.

It's actually the opposite.

The atmosphere is mostly transparent to incoming shortwave solar radiation (sunlight passes through without heating the air much).

The earth's surface absorbs this sunlight, gets heated, and then re-radiates energy as longwave (infrared) radiation.

This terrestrial radiation is what actually heats the atmosphere from below.

Statement II: CO₂ and greenhouse gases absorb longwave radiation — ✓ CORRECT.

This is exactly the greenhouse effect — these gases trap the earth's outgoing heat.

Easy way to remember:

Sun heats the ground → ground heats the air (not sun heats the air directly).
Key learnings →Climatology
18.
Geography
Consider the following:
1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. COnly three
4. DAll four
Show answer
Answer: (D) All four
Correct Answer: (d) All four.

Volcanic eruptions produce ALL of the following:

Pyroclastic debris (fragments of rock thrown out during eruption)

Ash and dust (fine particles that can travel thousands of kilometres)

Nitrogen compounds (gases released from the magma)

Sulphur compounds (SO₂ and other sulphur gases — these can cause acid rain and affect climate).

Volcanoes release both solid materials (lava, pyroclastic debris, ash) and gases (nitrogen compounds, sulphur compounds, water vapour, CO₂, and small amounts of chlorine, hydrogen, and argon).
Key learnings →Geomorphology
19.
Geography
Consider the following statements :

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
1. ABoth Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
3. COnly one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
4. DNeither Statement-II nor Statement-Ill is correct
Show answer
Answer: (A) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
Correct Answer: (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, and BOTH explain Statement-I.

Statement I: Rainfall causes weathering of rocks — ✓ CORRECT.

Statement II: Rainwater contains dissolved CO₂ — ✓ CORRECT.

This makes it slightly acidic (carbonic acid), which dissolves rocks like limestone.

This is called 'solution' weathering.

Statement III: Rainwater contains dissolved oxygen — ✓ CORRECT.

This causes 'oxidation' weathering — for example, iron in rocks reacts with oxygen to form rust (iron oxide), which crumbles easily.

Both CO₂ (causing chemical dissolution) and oxygen (causing oxidation) in rainwater contribute to weathering, so both statements explain why rain weathers rocks.
Key learnings →Geomorphology
20.
Geography
With reference to the Himalayan rivers Joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct ?
1. AGhaghara - Gomati - Gandak - Kosi
2. BGomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi
3. CGhaghara - Gomati - Kosi – Gandak
4. DGomati - Ghaghara - Kosi - Gandak
Show answer
Answer: (B) Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi
Correct Answer: (b) Gomati → Ghaghara → Gandak → Kosi.

These Himalayan rivers join the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj, from west to east in this order:

Gomati joins near Varanasi,

Ghaghara joins at Chhapra,

Gandak joins at Sonpur (near Patna),

Kosi joins in Katihar district (Bihar).

Memory trick: 'Go-Gha-Gan-Ko' — Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi — alphabetically almost in order, and geographically west to east.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
21.
Geography
Consider the following information:

Waterfall Region River

1. Dhuandhar Malwa Narmada

2. Hundru Chota Nagpur Subarnarekha

3. Gersoppa Western Ghats Netravati

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. CAll three
4. DNone
Show answer
Answer: (A) Only one
Correct Answer: (a) Only one row is correct (Row 2 only, Hundru).

Row 1 — Dhuandhar Falls in Malwa on river Narmada: ✗ WRONG.

The falls are on the Narmada, yes, but they're near Jabalpur which is in the Mahakoshal region, NOT in Malwa.

Row 2 — Hundru Falls in Chota Nagpur on river Subarnarekha: ✓ CORRECT.

Located in Ranchi, Jharkhand, it's the highest waterfall in the state at 320 feet.

Row 3 — Gersoppa (Jog Falls) in Western Ghats on river Netravati: ✗ WRONG.

The falls are indeed in the Western Ghats, but the river is the Sharavathi, not Netravati.

Tip: Jog/Gersoppa Falls on the Sharavathi is a very commonly tested fact.
Key learnings →Indian Physical Geography
22.
Geography
Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
2. The presence of cold ocean currents. Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Correct Answer: (a) Statement 1 only.

Statement 1: In January, isotherms deviate northward over oceans and southward over continents — ✓ CORRECT.

In winter (January in Northern Hemisphere), oceans are warmer than land.

So isotherms bend toward the north (toward higher latitudes) over warm oceans and southward over cold continents.

Statement 2: Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic COLDER — ✗ WRONG.

It's the exact opposite.

The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are WARM ocean currents that make the North Atlantic warmer, which is why isotherms bend northward there.

Key concept: In January, land is cold, ocean is warm → isotherms show this by bending toward poles over oceans and toward equator over land.
Key learnings →Oceanography
23.
Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C (Both 1 and 2)

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form (Correct)

The Reason: The Red Sea is locked between northeastern Africa and the Arabian Peninsula. Its entire coastline runs through intense, arid desert regions.

The Reality: The area receives less than 250 mm of rainfall per year. Combined with scorching summer temperatures, it suffers from massive evaporation rates, making it one of the saltiest bodies of water on Earth.

2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers (Correct)

The Reason: Because it is completely hemmed in by hyper-arid deserts, there is not a single major, permanent river or stream that flows into the Red Sea.

The Reality: Instead of fresh river water, it relies entirely on water exchange with the Mediterranean Sea to the north (via the Suez Canal) and the Indian Ocean to the south (via the Bab-el-Mandeb strait).

Simple Summary

Statement 1: It lies entirely in a desert zone, so it barely gets any rain. (True)

Statement 2: Not a single permanent river drains into it. (True)

The Result: High evaporation + No rivers + Low rain = An extremely warm and salty sea.
Key learnings →Oceanography
24.
Geography
On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?
1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. C3 and 4
4. D2 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 2 and 4
Correct Answer: (d) Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle (2 and 4).

June 21 is the Summer Solstice — the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the sun.

Equator — gets almost exactly 12 hours of sunlight year-round (not MORE than 12).

Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N) — gets MORE than 12 hours because it's in the hemisphere tilted toward the sun. ✓ CORRECT.

Tropic of Capricorn (23.5°S) — gets LESS than 12 hours (it's winter in the Southern Hemisphere).

Arctic Circle (66.5°N) — gets 24 hours of continuous daylight! ✓ CORRECT.

Easy rule for June 21:

Northern Hemisphere = longer days (more than 12 hours).

Southern Hemisphere = shorter days (less than 12 hours).

Equator = always ~12 hours.
Key learnings →World Physical Geography

	Party	Its Leader
1.	Bhartiya Jana Sangh	Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2.	Socialist Party	C. Rajagopalachari
3.	Congress for Democracy	Jagjivan Ram
4.	Swatantra Party	Acharya Narendra Dev

	Waterfall	Region	River
1.	Dhuandhar	Malwa	Narmada
2.	Hundru	Chota Nagpur	Subarnarekha
3.	Gersoppa	Western Ghats	Netravati

25.

Geography

Consider the following information:

	Region	Name of the mountain range	Type of mountain
1.	Central Asia	Vosges	Fold mountain
2.	Europe	Alps	Block mountain
3.	North America	Appalachians	Fold mountain
4.	South America	Andes	Fold mountain

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

AOnly one
BOnly two
COnly three
DAll four

Show answer

Answer: (B) Only two

Correct Answer: (b) Only two rows are correct (Rows 3 and 4).

Row 1 — Vosges in Central Asia as Fold mountain: ✗ WRONG on two counts.

The Vosges are in Europe (France/Germany border region), not Central Asia, and they are Block mountains, not Fold mountains.

Row 2 — Alps in Europe as Block mountain: ✗ WRONG.

The Alps are indeed in Europe, but they are Fold mountains (formed by tectonic plate collision), not Block mountains.

Row 3 — Appalachians in North America as Fold mountains: ✓ CORRECT.

Row 4 — Andes in South America as Fold mountains: ✓ CORRECT.

They're the longest continental mountain range.

Key facts:

Fold mountains = formed by tectonic compression (Alps, Himalayas, Andes, Appalachians).
Block mountains = formed by faulting (Vosges, Black Forest, Vindhyas).

Key learnings →World Physical Geography

26.
Geography
Consider the following description :
1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm.
What is this type of climate ?
1. AEquatorial climate
2. BChina type climate
3. CHumid subtropical climate
4. DMarine West coast climate
Show answer
Answer: (D) Marine West coast climate
Correct Answer: (d) Marine West Coast climate.

The three clues point to Marine West Coast (also called British-type) climate:

Low annual AND daily temperature range — because the ocean moderates temperatures year-round.

Precipitation throughout the year — frequent cyclonic storms from the Westerlies bring rain in all seasons.

Precipitation between 50–250 cm — some areas can receive up to 250 cm annually.

This climate is found in:

coastal Oregon/Washington/British Columbia

northwestern Europe

southeastern Australia

New Zealand

coastal Chile.

Easy elimination:

Equatorial climate has much higher rainfall (200+ cm) and temperatures.

China type has distinct wet/dry seasons.

Humid subtropical has hot summers and greater temperature range.
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
27.
Geography
One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate.

Which one of the following denot that region ?
1. AAmazon Basin
2. BCongo Basin
3. CKikon Basin
4. DRio de la Plata Basin
Show answer
Answer: (B) Congo Basin
Correct Answer: (b) Congo Basin.

The Congo Basin holds the world's largest tropical peatlands, storing about 29 billion tonnes of carbon — roughly equivalent to three years of global fossil fuel emissions.

It also absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tonnes of CO₂ per year, making it one of the last regions that absorbs more carbon than it emits.

The Basin spans six countries:

Cameroon

Central African Republic

DR Congo

Republic of Congo

Equatorial Guinea

Gabon

Key point: While the Amazon is better known as a carbon sink, the Congo Basin's peatlands are the world's largest tropical peat stores.

Destroying them would release enormous amounts of greenhouse gases.
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
28.
Geography
The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:
1. ACanada and the United States of America
2. BChile and Argentina
3. CChina and India
4. DKazakhstan and Russian Federation
Show answer
Answer: (A) Canada and the United States of America
Correct Answer: (a) Canada and the United States of America.

The Canada–US border is the longest international border in the world at about 8,891 km.

For comparison:

Russia–Kazakhstan ≈ 7,644 km

Chile–Argentina ≈ 5,308 km

India–China border is much shorter.

Easy way to remember: Think of the map — Canada and the US share an enormous east-to-west border stretching across an entire continent, plus Alaska's border with Canada.
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
29.
Geography
Consider the following countries:
1. Finland
2. Germany
3. Norway
4. Russia
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. COnly three
4. DAll four
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two
Correct Answer: (b) Only two — Germany and Norway.

The North Sea is bordered by:

UK

Norway

Denmark

Germany

Netherlands

Belgium

France.

From the given list:

Finland — borders the Baltic Sea, NOT the North Sea.

Germany — YES, borders the North Sea.

Norway — YES, borders the North Sea.

Russia — borders the Baltic Sea and Arctic Ocean, NOT the North Sea.

Easy way to remember:

The North Sea is between Britain and Scandinavia/mainland Europe.

Finland and Russia are too far east (they're on the Baltic side).
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
30.
Geography
Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
1. AAlgeria and Morocco
2. BBotswana and Namibia
3. CCote d'Ivoire and Ghana
4. DMadagascar and Mozambique
Show answer
Answer: (C) Cote d'Ivoire and Ghana
Correct Answer: (c) Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana.

These two West African countries are the world's largest cocoa producers, together accounting for over 50% of global cocoa output.

Côte d'Ivoire alone produces about 2.1 million metric tons annually.

About 70% of the world's cocoa comes from four West African countries:

Côte d'Ivoire

Ghana

Nigeria

Cameroon

The other options list countries from North Africa (Algeria, Morocco), Southern Africa (Botswana, Namibia), or East Africa (Madagascar, Mozambique) — none of which are major cocoa producers.

Easy way to remember: Cocoa = West Africa, especially Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana.
Key learnings →World Physical Geography
31.
Indian Polity
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971.

Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1, 2 and 3 only
2. B1, 3 and 4 only
3. C2 and 4 only
4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only.

After the 2002 amendment, the North Eastern Council comprises:

Governors of the 8 NE states — ✓ CORRECT (Statement 1).

Chief Ministers of the 8 NE states — ✓ CORRECT (Statement 2).

Three members nominated by the President — ✓ CORRECT (Statement 3).

The Home Minister is NOT a member of the NEC — Statement 4 is ✗ WRONG.

The 8 NE states are:

Assam

Arunachal Pradesh

Manipur

Meghalaya

Mizoram

Nagaland

Tripura

Sikkim.

The Chairman is nominated by the President.

The NEC acts as a regional planning body.
Key learnings →Constitutional & Statutory Bodies
32.
Indian Polity
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below :
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (d) All three statements are correct.

Statement 1: Part IX-A deals with Municipalities (added by the 74th Amendment, 1992). ✓ CORRECT.

Statement 2: Part XVIII covers Emergency Provisions — including National Emergency, President's Rule, and Financial Emergency. ✓ CORRECT.

Statement 3: Part XX (Article 368) deals with the Amendment of the Constitution. ✓ CORRECT.

Memory aid:
IX-A = Municipalities (think 'A' for 'Area' — local area governance).
XVIII (18) = Emergencies.
XX (20) = Amendment procedure.
Key learnings →Constitutional Amendments
33.
Indian Polity
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of :
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Article 368 clearly states that Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

Addition (adding new provisions),

Variation (changing existing provisions),

or Repeal (removing provisions).

All three methods are explicitly mentioned in the text of Article 368 itself.

Any option that leaves out even one of these is incomplete.

This is a straightforward factual question — just remember:

Amendment = Addition + Variation + Repeal.
Key learnings →Constitutional Amendments
34.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’ :
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1 and 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: (c) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1:
It will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha — ✗ WRONG.
The reservation will come into effect only AFTER the next delimitation exercise is completed (based on the next census), not automatically from the 18th Lok Sabha.

Statement 2:
It will be in force for 15 years — ✓ CORRECT.
The reservation is valid for 15 years from commencement, extendable by Parliament.

Statement 3:
There are sub-reservations for SC women within SC reserved seats — ✓ CORRECT.
Within the 33% women's reservation, seats are further reserved for SC and ST women proportionally.

The biggest trap is Statement 1 — many students assume it starts immediately, but it's linked to the delimitation process.
Key learnings →Elections
35.
Indian Polity
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
1. AOne
2. BTwo
3. CThree
4. DFour
Show answer
Answer: (D) Four
Correct Answer: (d) Four.

India has set up 4 Delimitation Commissions so far — in 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002.

Think of it this way: roughly once every decade from the 1950s to 2000s.

What does a Delimitation Commission do?

It redraws the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on the latest census data, so that each constituency has roughly equal population.

Key facts to remember:

(1) It is set up under a special Act of Parliament each time.

(2) Its orders have the force of law — no court can challenge them.

(3) The orders are laid before Parliament but cannot be modified by it.

Easy trick: '52, 62, 72, 02 — four commissions in four different decades.'
Key learnings →Elections
36.
Indian Polity
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
1. AInter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
2. BInter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
3. CInter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
4. DCorporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Show answer
Answer: (C) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
Correct Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject.

Let's check each option:

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce — this is in the Union List, not State List. ✗ WRONG.

(b) Inter-State migration — this is also in the Union List (Entry 81). ✗ WRONG.

(c) Inter-State quarantine — this is indeed a Union subject under the Union List (Entry 81, along with inter-state migration). ✓ CORRECT.

(d) Corporation tax — this is in the Union List (Entry 85), not the State List. ✗ WRONG.

Key point: Anything with 'Inter-State' in it is generally a Union subject because it involves coordination between states.

The Seventh Schedule under Article 246 divides subjects into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
37.
Indian Polity
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B1, 2 and 4
3. C1, 3 and 4
4. D2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 — Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali.

The 71st Amendment (1992) added exactly three languages to the Eighth Schedule:

Konkani

Manipuri (also called Meitei)

Nepali.

Maithili was NOT added by this amendment — it came later through the 92nd Amendment (2003) along with:

Bodo

Dogri

Santhali.

Easy way to remember:

71st Amendment = 3 languages (Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali).

92nd Amendment = 4 languages (Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali).

The total went from 18 to 22 languages after the 92nd Amendment.

If any option includes Maithili with the 71st Amendment, eliminate it immediately.
Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
38.
Indian Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not to be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 2 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Correct Answer: (b) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1:
The Governor recognizes and declares Scheduled Tribes — ✗ WRONG.
It is the PRESIDENT (not the Governor) who specifies Scheduled Tribes through a public notification, after consulting the Governor of the state (Article 342).
Only Parliament can later modify the list.

Statement 2:
A Scheduled Tribe in one state need not be one in another — ✓ CORRECT.
The ST list is state/UT-specific.
A community listed as ST in one state may not have that status in another.

Key point:
Don't confuse the roles — the President notifies, Parliament amends, but the Governor only gets consulted.
Key learnings →Introduction to Constitution
39.
Indian Polity
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :
1. Aa government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
2. Bthe Parliament/ Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
3. Cthe lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
4. Dthe Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Show answer
Answer: (C) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
Correct Answer: (c) A lower court, prohibiting continuation of proceedings.

A Writ of Prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or High Court to STOP a lower court or tribunal from continuing a case that is beyond its jurisdiction.

Think of it as saying 'Stop! You don't have the authority to hear this case.'

Key points:

It can only be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial bodies (courts, tribunals).

It CANNOT be issued against administrative authorities, legislatures, or private persons.

It is the opposite of Mandamus — Prohibition says 'don't do it,' while Mandamus says 'do it.'
Key learnings →Judiciary
40.
Indian Polity
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: (c) Statements 1 and 3 only.

Statement 1: The Ethics Committee was initially ad hoc — ✓ CORRECT.

Speaker G.M.C. Balayogi set up an ad hoc Ethics Committee in 2000.

It only became a permanent standing committee in 2015.

Statement 2: Only a Lok Sabha MP can complain — ✗ WRONG.

Any person can complain against an MP, but they must route it through a Lok Sabha member, along with evidence and an affidavit.

The Speaker can also directly refer complaints.

Statement 3: The Committee cannot take up sub-judice matters — ✓ CORRECT.

If a matter is already before a court, the Ethics Committee will not entertain it.

Key takeaway: The committee became permanent only in 2015 — that's quite recent.

And complaints can come from anyone (not just MPs), though they must be channelled through an MP.
Key learnings →Legislature
41.
Indian Polity
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Correct Answer: (a) Statement 1 only.

When a resolution for removing the Speaker is being considered:

Statement 1: The Speaker shall not preside — ✓ CORRECT.

Someone else chairs the session during this discussion.

Statement 2: The Speaker cannot speak — ✗ WRONG.

The Speaker retains the right to speak and participate in proceedings.

Statement 3: The Speaker cannot vote in the first instance — ✗ WRONG.

The Speaker CAN vote in the first instance; the only restriction is no casting vote in case of a tie.

The Speaker steps down from the Chair but doesn't lose all rights.

Only the presiding function is taken away, not the right to speak or vote.
Key learnings →Legislature
42.
Indian Polity
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2
3. C2 and 3
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (B) 1 and 2
Correct Answer: (b) Statements 1 and 2.

What LAPSES when Lok Sabha dissolves:

Statement 1: A bill pending in Lok Sabha — LAPSES. ✓ CORRECT.

Statement 2: A bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha — LAPSES. ✓ CORRECT.

What does NOT lapse:

Statement 3: A bill for which the President has notified a joint sitting — does NOT lapse. ✗ WRONG. This is a key exception.

Also remember:

Bills pending in Rajya Sabha (not yet passed by Lok Sabha) do NOT lapse.

Bills passed by both Houses awaiting Presidential assent do NOT lapse.

Easy rule: If Lok Sabha hasn't finished with it, or has passed it but Rajya Sabha hasn't — it lapses. Joint sitting notification saves the bill.
Key learnings →Legislature
43.
Indian Polity
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2
3. C2 and 3
4. D3 only
Show answer
Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (c) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1: Prorogation does not require Council of Ministers' advice — ✗ WRONG.

Under Article 85(2), the President prorogues Houses, but this requires the advice of the Council of Ministers (like most Presidential actions).

Statement 2: Prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, but the President CAN prorogue even while the House is in session — ✓ CORRECT.

Statement 3: Dissolution of Lok Sabha is done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers (except in exceptional cases) — ✓ CORRECT.

In exceptional cases, the President may use discretion (e.g., exploring alternate government formation).

Key distinction:

Prorogation = ends a session (both Houses).

Dissolution = ends the life of Lok Sabha itself (only Lok Sabha can be dissolved, not Rajya Sabha).
Key learnings →Legislature
44.
Indian Polity
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Correct Answer: (b) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1:
The Finance Minister presents the budget on behalf of the Prime Minister — ✗ WRONG.
Article 112 says the President causes the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before Parliament.
So the Finance Minister presents it on behalf of the President, not the PM.

Statement 2:
No demand for grant without the President's recommendation — ✓ CORRECT.
Under Article 113(3), the President's prior approval is needed before any demand for grants can be presented in Lok Sabha.

Easy way to remember:
Budget = President's document, presented by the Finance Minister.
Demands for grants also need the President's nod.
Key learnings →Legislature
45.
Indian Polity
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendment to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1, 2 and 3
4. D1, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (c) Statements 1, 2 and 3.

Statement 1: Article 109 deals with the special procedure for Money Bills — ✓ CORRECT.

Statement 2: A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha — ✓ CORRECT.

It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

Statement 3: Rajya Sabha can either approve or suggest changes, but cannot reject a Money Bill — ✓ CORRECT.

It must return the bill within 14 days.

Statement 4: Lok Sabha must accept Rajya Sabha's suggestions — ✗ WRONG.

Lok Sabha has the final say — it may accept or reject the Rajya Sabha's recommendations.

If it rejects them, the bill is still deemed passed.

Key takeaway: For Money Bills, Lok Sabha has supreme power.

Rajya Sabha can only suggest, not reject, and even those suggestions can be ignored.
Key learnings →Legislature
46.
Indian Polity
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India,

has the Supreme Court of India places the Right to Privacy?
1. AArticle 15
2. BArticle 16
3. CArticle 19
4. DArticle 21
Show answer
Answer: (D) Article 21
Correct Answer: (d) Article 21.

The Supreme Court declared the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) in the landmark case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017).

This was a unanimous decision by a 9-judge bench.

It overruled two older judgments — M.P. Sharma (1958) and Kharak Singh (1961) — which had said privacy was not a constitutional right.

Easy way to remember:

Article 21 is the most expansive fundamental right

Courts have read many rights into it, including the right to:

livelihood

education

health

clean environment

and now privacy.
Key learnings →Preamble, Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties
47.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II : In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct.

Statement I: India does not import apples from the US — ✗ WRONG.

India does import US apples.

In 2019, India imposed a 20% retaliatory tariff on US apples (after the US revoked India's GSP benefits), which reduced imports.

But India later dropped that tariff, and US apple exports to India surged (16 times higher than the previous year by 2024).

Statement II: Indian law prohibits importing GM food without approval — ✓ CORRECT.

Import of genetically modified food requires prior approval from GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) under the Ministry of Environment, plus clearance from FSSAI.
Key learnings →Agriculture and Allied Sectors
48.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 only
3. C1, 2 and 3
4. D2 and 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (D) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: (d) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1:
NBFCs can access RBI's LAF window — ✗ WRONG.
The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is available only to Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding RRBs) and Primary Dealers.
Most NBFCs cannot access LAF.
Only a few NBFCs that are Primary Dealers can use it.

Statement 2:
FIIs can hold Government Securities — ✓ CORRECT.
SEBI-approved FIIs can invest up to 100% of their portfolio in debt securities including government bonds.

Statement 3:
Stock exchanges can offer separate debt trading platforms — ✓ CORRECT.
SEBI has allowed this, and NSE was the first exchange to launch a separate debt trading platform.

Key point:
LAF = only for banks and Primary Dealers, not for NBFCs in general.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
49.
Indian Economy
With reference to the Indian economy,

'Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations'

are the instruments of:
1. ABond market
2. BForex market
3. CMoney market
4. DStock market
Show answer
Answer: (C) Money market
Correct Answer: (c) Money market.

CBLO (Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligation) is a money market instrument.

It works like a short-term bond where one party borrows money and another lends it, with government securities as collateral.

In India, CBLOs are operated by the Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (CCIL) and regulated by the RBI.

Key concept:

Money market = short-term borrowing/lending (up to 1 year).

Instruments include:

T-bills

Commercial Paper

Certificates of Deposit

CBLO.

Bond market and stock market deal with longer-term instruments.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
50.
Indian Economy
In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (d) All three — Insurance Companies, Pension Funds, and Retail Investors can all trade in corporate bonds and government securities.

Insurance companies and pension funds are major institutional players in these markets.

Retail investors can now participate directly through the RBI Retail Direct Scheme (launched 2021), which lets individuals open a 'Retail Direct Gilt' (RDG) account to buy government securities directly.

Corporate bonds can also be bought by retail investors through platforms like Zerodha.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
51.
Indian Economy
With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:
1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Correct Answer: (b) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1: No minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries — ✗ WRONG.

There IS a minimum requirement — the initial paid-up capital must be at least ₹500 crore (5 billion), funded entirely through foreign exchange from the parent bank.

Statement 2: At least 50% of board members should be Indian nationals — ✓ CORRECT.

RBI requires at least 50% of directors to be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs, with at least one-third being Indian nationals resident in India.

Foreign banks in India must choose ONE mode — either branches OR a wholly owned subsidiary.

They can't operate through both.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
52.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II : The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement I: Syndicated lending spreads default risk across multiple lenders — ✓ CORRECT.

When a loan is too large for one bank, several banks come together (form a 'syndicate') to share the loan and the risk.

Statement II: Syndicated loans can only be fixed amounts, not credit lines — ✗ WRONG.

A syndicated loan can be a fixed amount, a credit line, or a combination of both.

Key concept:

Syndicated loans are common for very large borrowers (big companies, governments).

The lead bank arranges the deal, and other banks participate, sharing both the lending and the risk.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
53.
Indian Economy
Consider the following:
1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
1. A1 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1, 2 and 3
4. D1 and 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: (d) ETFs and Currency swaps only (1 and 3).

Financial instruments are documents or contracts representing monetary value:

ETFs (Exchange-Traded Funds) — YES. They represent ownership in a basket of assets and are traded on stock exchanges.

Currency swaps — YES. They are derivative contracts for exchanging currencies, a type of forex instrument.

Motor vehicles — NO. They are physical/tangible assets, not financial instruments. While you can take a loan to buy a car (the loan is a financial instrument), the car itself is just a physical asset.

Key distinction:

Financial instruments represent a claim or contract (stocks, bonds, derivatives).

Physical goods (cars, land, gold bars) are assets but not financial instruments.
Key learnings →Banking and Financial System
54.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Correct Answer: (a) Statement 1 only.

Statement 1: India is a member of the International Grains Council — ✓ CORRECT.

The IGC was established in 1949 to promote cooperation in global grain trade.

Statement 2: Membership is required for importing/exporting rice and wheat — ✗ WRONG.

Any country can trade in grains regardless of IGC membership.

The IGC is just a forum for discussion and information-sharing, not a trade licensing body.

Key point: Don't confuse 'international council/organization' with 'mandatory membership for trade.'

Most such organizations are voluntary forums.
Key learnings →External Sector and International Economics
55.
Indian Economy
The total fertility rate in a economy is defined as :
1. Athe number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
2. Bthe number of children born to couple in their lifetime in a given population.
3. Cthe birth rate minus death rate.
4. Dthe average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Show answer
Answer: (D) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Correct Answer: (d) The average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Total Fertility Rate (TFR) measures how many children a woman would have on average over her entire reproductive life, given current birth rates.

It is NOT:

(a) births per 1000 people (that's the Crude Birth Rate),

(b) children per couple (TFR is per woman),

(c) birth rate minus death rate (that's the Natural Growth Rate).

Key facts:

India's TFR has dropped from 6.2 (1950) to about 2.0 (2021).

Replacement-level TFR = 2.1 (the level needed for a population to maintain itself without growth).
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
56.
Indian Economy
With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

Items Category

1. Farmer's plough Working capital

2. Computer Fixed capital

3. Yarn used by the weaver Fixed capital

4. Petrol Working capital

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. COnly three
4. DAll four
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two
Correct Answer: (b) Only two pairs are correct (Pairs 2 and 4).

Pair 1 — Farmer's plough as Working capital: ✗ WRONG.
A plough is Fixed capital — it's a durable tool used over many farming seasons.

Pair 2 — Computer as Fixed capital: ✓ CORRECT.
A computer is a long-term asset used across multiple production cycles.

Pair 3 — Yarn used by weaver as Fixed capital: ✗ WRONG.
Yarn is Working capital — it gets consumed within a single production cycle (turned into cloth).

Pair 4 — Petrol as Working capital: ✓ CORRECT.
Petrol is consumed in one use and must be repurchased.

Easy test:
Will it last multiple production cycles? → Fixed capital (plough, computer, building).
Will it be used up in one cycle? → Working capital (yarn, petrol, raw materials, cash).
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
57.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct.

Statement I: Venezuela has recovered from its economic crisis — ✗ WRONG.

Venezuela is still in a deep crisis.

Over 7.7 million people have fled since 2014, making it one of the largest displacement crises in the world.

Statement II: Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves — ✓ CORRECT.

It holds about 17% of global proven crude oil reserves, but despite this, it produced only 0.8% of world crude oil in 2023.

The irony: Having the largest oil reserves hasn't saved Venezuela from economic collapse due to mismanagement, sanctions, and political instability.
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
58.
Indian Economy
With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

Economic activity Sector

1. Storage of agricultural produce Secondary

2. Dairy farm Primary

3. Mineral exploration Tertiary

4. Weaving cloth Secondary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. COnly three
4. DAll four
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two
To identify the correct pairs, we classify activities into:

Primary sector → extraction/production of natural resources

Secondary sector → manufacturing and processing

Tertiary sector → services

Pair 1: Storage of agricultural produce — Secondary
✘ Incorrect

Storage is a service activity related to logistics, warehousing, and distribution. Therefore, it belongs to the tertiary sector, not the secondary sector.

Pair 2: Dairy Farm — Primary
✔ Correct

Dairy farming involves animal husbandry and production of milk directly from nature-based activity. Hence, it belongs to the primary sector.

Pair 3: Mineral exploration — Tertiary
✘ Incorrect

Mineral exploration is linked to locating and extracting natural resources, so it belongs to the primary sector, not the tertiary sector.

Pair 4: Weaving cloth — Secondary
✔ Correct

Weaving transforms raw material (yarn/fiber) into cloth, which is a manufacturing activity under the secondary sector.

Therefore:

Pairs 2 and 4 are correct.

Pairs 1 and 3 are incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is Only two.
Key learnings →Foundations of Economics and Indian Economy Overview
59.
Indian Economy
With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 only
Correct Answer: (b) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1: Provides antenatal care + 6 months post-delivery care — ✗ WRONG.

The scheme provides a checkup in the 2nd or 3rd trimester of pregnancy on the 9th of every month.

It does NOT guarantee six months of post-delivery healthcare.

The exaggeration of scope is the trap.

Statement 2: Private sector specialists can volunteer at government facilities — ✓ CORRECT.

OB-GYN specialists, radiologists, and physicians from the private sector are encouraged to provide voluntary services at government health centres where government doctors are unavailable.

PMSMA focuses on ensuring at least one quality antenatal checkup during pregnancy, not a comprehensive package spanning pregnancy to post-delivery.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
60.
Indian Economy
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (d) All three statements are correct.

Statement 1: 100% Central Government funding — ✓ CORRECT.

DILRMP was converted to a Central Sector Scheme in 2016 with full Central funding.

Statement 2: Cadastral maps are digitized — ✓ CORRECT.

Digitization of cadastral maps (land parcel maps) is one of the basic components.

Statement 3: Records of Rights are being transliterated into all 22 Schedule VIII languages — ✓ CORRECT.

With help from C-DAC Pune, land records in local languages are being transliterated to break language barriers.

Other features to know:

ULPIN (Bhu-Aadhaar) — a 14-digit unique ID for each land parcel based on geo-coordinates.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
61.
Indian Economy
Consider the following airports:
1. Donyi Polo Airport
2. Kushinagar International Airport
3. Vijayawada International Airport
In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: (a) Donyi Polo Airport and Kushinagar International Airport (1 and 2 only).

Both Donyi Polo (Hollongi, Arunachal Pradesh) and Kushinagar (Uttar Pradesh) were built as Greenfield projects — meaning they were built from scratch on new sites, not by upgrading existing airports.

Vijayawada International Airport is NOT a Greenfield project — it was an expansion/upgrade of an existing airport.

Key concept:

Greenfield = built on a completely new site.

Brownfield = upgrade of existing infrastructure.

India's Greenfield Airports Policy (2008) governs how new airports are approved.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
62.
Indian Economy
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements :
1. The entry age group for enrolment in the shceme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. A1, 3 and 4
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C2 only
4. D1, 2 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: (b) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1: Entry age is 21–40 years — ✗ WRONG.

The correct entry age is 18–40 years (not 21).

Statement 2: Age-specific contributions are required — ✓ CORRECT.

The monthly contribution varies based on the age at which the person joins (younger joiners pay less per month).

Statement 3: Minimum pension of Rs. 3,000/month after age 60 — ✓ CORRECT.

Statement 4: Family pension applies to spouse AND unmarried daughters — ✗ WRONG.

Family pension (50% of pension) applies only to the spouse, not to daughters.

Key facts:

PM-SYM is for unorganised workers earning up to Rs. 15,000/month.

It's voluntary and contributory.
Key learnings →Government Schemes and Economic Institutions
63.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:
1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B1 and 3 only
3. C2 and 4 only
4. D1, 2 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: (d) Statements 1, 2 and 4.

Statement 1: Digital rupee (CBDC) is sovereign currency aligned with RBI's monetary policy — ✓ CORRECT.

Statement 2: It appears as a liability on RBI's balance sheet — ✓ CORRECT.

This is what makes it different from regular digital money in bank accounts (which is a liability of commercial banks).

Statement 3: It is insured against inflation by design — ✗ WRONG.

Like physical currency, CBDC is NOT inherently inflation-proof. Its value can still be eroded by inflation.

Statement 4: It is freely convertible against bank money and cash — ✓ CORRECT.

1 digital rupee = 1 physical rupee.

Key distinction: CBDC is RBI's liability (like a paper note), while money in your bank account is the bank's liability.
Key learnings →Money, Inflation, and Monetary Policy
64.
Indian Economy
Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II : The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Correct Answer: (a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Statement I: If the US defaults, bondholders cannot claim payment — ✓ CORRECT.

A default means the government cannot meet its debt obligations.

Statement II: US government debt is backed only by faith, not hard assets — ✓ CORRECT.

The US dollar is fiat currency (not backed by gold or any commodity).

Why II explains I:

Because the debt is backed only by the government's promise (not by physical assets), if the government fails to pay, bondholders have nothing tangible to seize.

There's no gold reserve they can claim — only the government's ability and willingness to pay.
Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
65.
Indian Economy
With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A1 only
2. B2 only
3. CBoth 1 and 2
4. DNeither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 only
Correct Answer: (a) Statement 1 only.

Statement 1: Spending that directly benefits the company or its employees doesn't count as CSR — ✓ CORRECT.

Under the CSR rules, any activity designed exclusively for employees' benefit is not considered eligible CSR expenditure.

Statement 2: There is no minimum CSR spending requirement — ✗ WRONG.

There IS a minimum — companies meeting certain thresholds (net worth ≥ ₹500 crore, OR turnover ≥ ₹1,000 crore, OR net profit ≥ ₹5 crore) must spend at least 2% of average net profits from the preceding 3 years on CSR activities.
Key learnings →Public Finance and Fiscal Policy
66.
Environment
The organisms 'Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater' are :
1. ABirds
2. BFish
3. CInsects
4. DReptiles
Show answer
Answer: (C) Insects
Correct Answer: (c) Insects.

All three are insects:

Cicada — known for their loud buzzing sound, stout bodies, and periodic mass emergences (some species appear only every 13 or 17 years).

Froghopper — small jumping insects whose nymphs produce a frothy foam ('spittle') on plants. Also called spittlebugs.

Pond skater (water strider) — insects that walk on the surface of water using surface tension, feeding on dead insects trapped on the water.

These are all from the insect class, not birds, fish, or reptiles.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
67.
Environment
Consider the following pairs:

Country Animal found in its natural habitat

1. Brazil Indri

2. Indonesia Elk

3. Madagascar Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. CAll three
4. DNone
Show answer
Answer: (D) None
Correct Answer: (d) None are correctly matched.

Pair 1 — Brazil + Indri: ✗ WRONG. The Indri (a large lemur) is found only in Madagascar, not Brazil.

Pair 2 — Indonesia + Elk: ✗ WRONG. Elk are found in North America and Central/East Asia, not Indonesia.

Pair 3 — Madagascar + Bonobo: ✗ WRONG. Bonobos are found in the Democratic Republic of Congo (Central Africa), not Madagascar.

The correct matches would be:

Indri → Madagascar

Elk → North America/East Asia

Bonobo → DR Congo.

This question tests whether you know which continent/country each animal is actually native to.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
68.
Environment
Consider the following:
1. Butterflies
2. Fish
3. Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. CAll three
4. DNone
Show answer
Answer: (C) All three
Correct Answer: (c) All three — butterflies, fish, and frogs all have poisonous species.

Poisonous butterflies:
The African Giant Swallowtail (Papilio antimachus) contains cardiac steroid toxins strong enough to poison 20 cats.

Poisonous/venomous fish:
The Reef Stonefish is the most venomous fish in the world, with 13 dorsal spines that inject highly toxic venom.

Poisonous frogs:
Poison dart frogs are well-known.
Additionally, Bruno's casque-headed frog and Greening's frog (both from Brazil) are actually venomous (they can inject poison through spiny bone protrusions).

Key distinction:
Poisonous = harmful if you touch/eat it.
Venomous = it injects toxin into you.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
69.
Environment
Consider the following plants
1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean
How many of the above belong to the pea family?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. CAll three
4. DNone
Show answer
Answer: (C) All three
Correct Answer: (c) All three belong to the pea family.

Groundnut (peanut), Horse-gram, and Soybean all belong to the family Fabaceae (also called Leguminosae) — the legume/pea/bean family.

This is one of the largest and most important plant families.

All legumes share a key feature: they have root nodules containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria, which enriches the soil.

Easy way to remember: If it's a 'dal' or bean, it's probably in the Fabaceae family.

Groundnut is technically a legume (not a nut!), which is why it's in this family.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
70.
Environment
Consider the following statements:
1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: (a) Statements 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1: Lions have no particular breeding season — ✓ CORRECT.

Lions can breed year-round and often synchronize breeding within a pride, especially after a takeover by new males.

Statement 2: Cheetahs do not roar — ✓ CORRECT.

Unlike lions, tigers, and leopards, cheetahs cannot roar. Their voice box has a fixed structure (like small cats), which allows them to purr but not roar. They make chirps, purrs, and yelps instead.

Statement 3: Male leopards don't scent-mark territory — ✗ WRONG.

Leopards DO mark their territory using faeces, urine, cheek-rubbing on trees, and scrape marks.

Easy way to remember:

Cheetah = can purr but can't roar (like a house cat).

Lions and leopards = can roar but can't purr.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
71.
Environment
Consider the following statements

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-l is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Show answer
Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement I: The Indian Flying Fox is categorised as vermin — ✓ CORRECT.

It was listed under Schedule V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 as vermin because it raids fruit orchards (especially mango and guava).

It was later moved to Schedule II for higher protection.

Statement II: It feeds on blood — ✗ WRONG.

The Indian Flying Fox is a fruit and nectar eater, NOT a blood-feeder.

Don't confuse it with vampire bats (which do feed on blood and are found in the Americas, not India).

The Flying Fox is actually a keystone species — it helps in seed dispersal for many tropical plants.
Key learnings →Biodiversity and Conservation
72.
Environment
Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II : The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement I: The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act — ✓ CORRECT.

This Act aims for Europe to produce 40% of its clean technology needs domestically by 2030.

Statement II: The EU aims for carbon neutrality by 2040 — ✗ WRONG.

The EU's target is carbon neutrality by 2050, not 2040.

Also, 'develop ALL of its own clean technology' is an overstatement.

Easy way to remember:

EU climate neutrality target = 2050.

If you see 2040 in the options, it's wrong.
Key learnings →Climate Change
73.
Environment
Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that ta pollinate this tree ?
1. AFig
2. BMahua
3. CSandalwood
4. DSilk cotton
Show answer
Answer: (A) Fig
Correct Answer: (a) Fig.

Fig trees have a unique co-evolved relationship with fig wasps.

Each species of fig tree has its own specific partner wasp species — no other insect can pollinate that particular fig.

How it works:

The female wasp enters the fig to lay eggs, and while doing so, she pollinates the flowers inside.

In return, the fig provides some of its developing seeds as food for the wasp larvae.

This is one of the best examples of mutualism and co-evolution in nature.

Key fact: This is a one-to-one relationship — one fig species = one specific wasp species.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
74.
Environment
Consider the following:
1. Cashew
2. Papaya
3. Red sanders
How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. CAll three
4. DNone
Show answer
Answer: (A) Only one
Correct Answer: (a) Only one — Red Sanders is native to India.

Cashew — native to northeastern Brazil.

Portuguese missionaries brought it to India in the 16th century.

Papaya — native to South Mexico and Costa Rica.

India is now the world's largest producer, but the plant originated in the Americas.

Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood) — native to Andhra Pradesh, India.

Its trade is regulated because it's highly valued and at risk of illegal harvesting.

Easy way to remember:

Many common Indian crops actually originated elsewhere

cashew from Brazil

papaya from Mexico

potato from South America

chilli from the Americas.

Red Sanders is one of the few that's truly native.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
75.
Environment
Consider the following :
1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps
Parasitoid species are found how many of the above kind of organisms?
1. AOnly two
2. BOnly three
3. COnly four
4. DAll Five
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only three
Correct Answer: (b) Only three — beetles, flies, and wasps.

Parasitoids are organisms that live on/in a host and eventually kill it.

Found among:

Carabid beetles — some species (like Brachinus, the bombardier beetle) are parasitoids as larvae. ✓ CORRECT.

Flies (Diptera) — many fly species are parasitoids. ✓ CORRECT.

Wasps (Hymenoptera) — the most common group of parasitoids. ✓ CORRECT.

NOT found among:

Centipedes — they are predators, not parasitoids. ✗ WRONG.

Termites — they are detritivores (eat dead plant matter), not parasitoids. ✗ WRONG.

Key distinction:

Predators kill prey quickly.

Parasitoids live with the host and kill it slowly.

Parasites live with the host but usually don't kill it.
Key learnings →Ecology and Ecosystems
76.
Environment
Which one of the following is the correct description of '100 Million Farmers'?
1. AIt is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
2. BIt is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
3. CIt is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
4. DIt is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.
Show answer
Answer: (A) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
Correct Answer: (a) A platform for accelerating the transition towards net-zero food and water systems while increasing farmer resilience.

'100 Million Farmers' is a World Economic Forum initiative focused on making agriculture climate-friendly and nature-positive.

The other options describe different things:

(b) describes an organic animal husbandry network,

(c) describes a blockchain fertilizer trading platform,

(d) describes a platform for Farmer Producer Organizations.
Key learnings →Green Technology and Sustainable Development
77.
Environment
According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA),

which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
1. ALocomotives using fossil fuels
2. BShips using fossil fuels
3. CExtraction of metals from ores
4. DPower plants using fossil fuels
Show answer
Answer: (D) Power plants using fossil fuels
Correct Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels.

According to the US Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the largest source of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) emissions is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and industrial facilities.

Smaller sources include:

metal extraction from ores

volcanoes (natural source)

vehicles/ships burning high-sulphur fuel.

Easy way to remember:

Power plants burn massive amounts of coal and oil → release the most SO₂.

The question specifically asks about the LARGEST source, so even though all options contribute some SO₂, power plants dominate.
Key learnings →Pollution
78.
Environment
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.

Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Correct Answer: (a) Both correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Statement I: Many chewing gums are a source of environmental pollution — ✓ CORRECT.

Discarded gum generates over 105 tonnes of plastic-like waste annually that is non-biodegradable.

Statement II: Many chewing gums contain plastic (polyvinyl acetate/PVA) as their gum base — ✓ CORRECT.

PVA is a polymer also used in making tyres and glue.

Why II explains I: Because the gum base is essentially plastic, when people spit out gum, it doesn't decompose — it pollutes the environment for thousands of years, just like other plastic waste.
Key learnings →Pollution
79.
Environment
With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer product, consider the following statements :
1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging material.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (d) All three statements are correct.

Statement 1: PFAS are widespread in drinking water, food, and food packaging — ✓ CORRECT.

They're found in non-stick cookware, food packaging, clothing, carpets, and fire-fighting foam.

Statement 2: PFAS don't easily degrade — ✓ CORRECT.

They're called 'forever chemicals' because they persist in the environment and don't break down naturally.

Statement 3: Persistent exposure leads to bioaccumulation — ✓ CORRECT.

Over time, the body takes in more PFAS than it can get rid of, so they build up in the body.

Key takeaway: PFAS = forever chemicals.

They're everywhere, they don't break down, and they accumulate in living organisms.
Key learnings →Pollution
80.
Science and Technology
What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee.
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs.
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1 and 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: (d) Statements 1 and 3 only.

Statement 1: CDS is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee — ✓ CORRECT.

Statement 2: CDS exercises military command over the three Service Chiefs — ✗ WRONG.

This is a crucial point. The CDS does NOT have military command over the Army, Navy, or Air Force chiefs. The three Service Chiefs retain their independent command.

Statement 3: CDS is the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on tri-service matters — ✓ CORRECT.

The CDS heads the Department of Military Affairs and advises on joint operations, logistics, and tri-service coordination, but does not command the individual services.

This is a common trap — many students assume CDS means supreme military commander, but that's not the case.
Key learnings →Defence

	Items	Category
1.	Farmer's plough	Working capital
2.	Computer	Fixed capital
3.	Yarn used by the weaver	Fixed capital
4.	Petrol	Working capital

	Economic activity	Sector
1.	Storage of agricultural produce	Secondary
2.	Dairy farm	Primary
3.	Mineral exploration	Tertiary
4.	Weaving cloth	Secondary

	Country	Animal found in its natural habitat
1.	Brazil	Indri
2.	Indonesia	Elk
3.	Madagascar	Bonobo

81.

Science and Technology

Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

	Army	Air Force	Navy
1.	Brigadier	Air Commodore	Commander
2.	Major General	Air Vice Marshal	Vice Admiral
3.	Major	Squadron Leader	Lieutenant Commander
4.	Lieutenant Colonel	Group Captain	Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A1 and 4
B1 and 3
C2, 3 and 4
D3 only

Show answer

Answer: (D) 3 only

Correct Answer: (d) Only pair 3 is correct.

Let's check each:

Pair 1: Brigadier = Air Commodore = Commander — ✗ WRONG.

Brigadier matches Air Commodore, but the Navy equivalent is Commodore (not Commander).

Pair 2: Major General = Air Vice Marshal = Vice Admiral — ✗ WRONG.

Major General matches Air Vice Marshal, but the Navy equivalent is Rear Admiral (not Vice Admiral).

Pair 3: Major = Squadron Leader = Lieutenant Commander — ✓ CORRECT.

This is the right match across all three services.

Pair 4: Lieutenant Colonel = Group Captain = Captain — ✗ WRONG.

Lieutenant Colonel matches Wing Commander (Air Force) and Commander (Navy).

Memory tip:

This topic requires rote memorization.

Focus on the most commonly tested ranks and learn them in a table format.

Key learnings →Defence

82.
Science and Technology
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called :
1. AOperation Sankalp
2. BOperation Maitri
3. COperation Sadbhavana
4. DOperation Madam
Show answer
Answer: (C) Operation Sadbhavana
Correct Answer: (c) Operation Sadbhavana.

Operation Sadbhavana (meaning 'goodwill') is the Indian Army's welfare initiative in remote areas, especially in Ladakh.

It focuses on:

education (Army Goodwill Schools)

women empowerment (vocational training, Pashmina weaving)

infrastructure development

healthcare

national integration.

The other operations:

Sankalp — related to maritime security in the Gulf of Oman.

Maitri — India's disaster relief operation (like the one in Nepal after the 2015 earthquake).

Madaam — not a commonly known operation.

Easy way to remember: 'Sadbhavana' literally means goodwill/good intentions — it matches the welfare nature of the operation.
Key learnings →Defence
83.
Science and Technology
Consider the following aircraft:
1. Rafael
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. CAll three
4. DNone
Show answer
Answer: (D) None
Correct Answer: (d) None.

None of the three are fifth-generation fighters:

Rafale (France) — classified as 4.5 generation.

MiG-29 (Russia) — classified as 4th generation.

Tejas Mk-1 (India) — classified as 4th/4+ generation.

Fifth-generation fighters are defined by:

advanced stealth,

sensor fusion,

networked combat systems, and

supermaneuverability.

Examples include the F-22 Raptor and F-35 (USA), Su-57 (Russia), and J-20 (China).

Key point: Just because an aircraft is modern and capable doesn't make it 5th gen. The defining feature is stealth combined with advanced integrated avionics.
Key learnings →Defence
84.
Science and Technology
Consider the following materials:
1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B3 and 4 only
3. C1, 2, 3 and 4
4. D1, 3 and 4 only
Show answer
Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: (c) All four can be used as feedstock for Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF).

SAF can be produced from a wide variety of sources:

Agricultural residues (crop waste, straw)

Corn grain

Wastewater treatment sludge (wet waste)

Wood mill waste (forestry waste)

Other feedstocks include:

waste oils and fats

algae

municipal solid waste

manure

dedicated energy crops.

SAF reduces CO₂ emissions by up to 80% compared to conventional jet fuel.

The broad range of possible feedstocks is what makes SAF promising for decarbonising aviation.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials
85.
Science and Technology
With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:
1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A1 and 2 only
2. B2 and 3 only
3. C1 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: (b) Statements 2 and 3 only.

Statement 1: RTGs are miniature fission reactors — ✗ WRONG.

RTGs do NOT involve fission (splitting atoms).

They work by converting the heat from natural radioactive decay of Plutonium-238 into electricity using thermocouples.

No chain reaction occurs.

Statement 2: RTGs power spacecraft systems — ✓ CORRECT.

They're used on deep-space missions (like Voyager, Curiosity rover) where solar panels aren't practical.

Statement 3: RTGs use Plutonium-238, a by-product of weapons development — ✓ CORRECT.

Pu-238 is produced as part of nuclear fuel processing.

Key distinction:

Fission reactor = controlled chain reaction (like a nuclear power plant).

RTG = heat from natural radioactive decay (no chain reaction).

RTGs are simpler and more reliable for space missions.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials
86.
Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
1. AHydrogen peroxide
2. BHydronium
3. COxygen
4. DWater vapour
Show answer
Answer: (D) Water vapour
Correct Answer: (d) Water vapour.

In a hydrogen fuel cell vehicle, hydrogen (H₂) reacts with oxygen (O₂) to produce electricity, and the only byproduct is water (H₂O), which exits the exhaust as water vapour and some heat.

This is why hydrogen fuel cells are considered 'zero emission' — no CO₂, no pollutants, just water.

The other options:

Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) — a reactive chemical, not the normal product.

Hydronium (H₃O⁺) — an ion found in solutions, not an exhaust gas.

Oxygen — is consumed as an input, not emitted as output.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials
87.
Science and Technology
Recently, the term 'pumped-storage hydropower' is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
1. AIrrigation of terraced crop fields
2. BLift irrigation of cereal crops
3. CLong duration energy storage
4. DRainwater harvesting system
Show answer
Answer: (C) Long duration energy storage
Correct Answer: (c) Long duration energy storage.

Pumped-storage hydropower works like a giant rechargeable battery:

When excess electricity is available (e.g., at night or from renewables), water is pumped UP to a higher reservoir.

When electricity is needed, water flows DOWN through turbines to generate power.

This makes it a form of long-duration energy storage — it can store energy for hours or even days.

It has nothing to do with irrigation, lift irrigation, or rainwater harvesting — those are about water use, not electricity storage.

Pumped-storage is currently the largest form of grid-scale energy storage in the world.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials
88.
Science and Technology
Consider the following:
1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
How many of the above are considered 'Distributed Energy Resources'?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. COnly three
4. DAll four
Show answer
Answer: (D) All four
Correct Answer: (d) All four.

Distributed Energy Resources (DER) are small-scale energy generation or storage units located close to where energy is consumed (on the consumer's side of the meter).

All four qualify:

Battery storage — stores electricity for later use

Biomass generators — produce energy from organic matter

Fuel cells — convert chemical energy (like hydrogen) to electricity

Rooftop solar PV — generates electricity from sunlight

Other examples of DERs include small wind turbines, combined heat and power systems, and EV batteries.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials
89.
Science and Technology
In which of the following are hydrogels used?
1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. A1 only
2. B1 and 2 only
3. C2 and 3 only
4. D1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (d) All three — controlled drug delivery, mobile air-conditioning, and industrial lubricants.

Hydrogels are polymer networks that love water and can absorb large amounts of it.

This property gives them diverse uses:

Drug delivery — they can hold drugs and release them slowly in a controlled manner.

Air conditioning — their moisture-handling and cooling properties make them useful in mobile/portable AC systems.

Lubricants — their low-friction behaviour when swollen with water makes them effective as lubricants.

Key concept: Hydrogels = water-absorbing polymer networks.

Their versatility comes from their ability to hold, release, and interact with water.
Key learnings →Energy & Materials
90.
Science and Technology
Membrane Bioreactors are often discussed in the context of:
1. AAssisted reproductive technologies
2. BDrug delivery nanotechnologies
3. CVaccine production technologies
4. DWastewater treatment technologies
Show answer
Answer: (D) Wastewater treatment technologies
Correct Answer: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies.

Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine two processes:

biological treatment (using microorganisms to break down waste)

membrane filtration (physically separating solids from water).

This combination produces very clean effluent, making MBRs especially useful for treating wastewater.

They're used in municipal and industrial wastewater treatment plants.

The other options — assisted reproduction, nano drug delivery, and vaccine production — are completely different fields and don't use MBRs.
Key learnings →Health
91.
Science and Technology
Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?
1. ANitric oxide
2. BNitrous oxide
3. CNitrogen dioxide
4. DNitrogen pentoxide
Show answer
Answer: (A) Nitric oxide
Correct Answer: (a) Nitric oxide.

Nitric oxide (NO) is naturally produced in the human body and acts as a vasodilator — it relaxes the walls of blood vessels, widening them to increase blood flow and lower blood pressure.

The other options:

Nitrous oxide (N₂O) — 'laughing gas,' used in anaesthesia. NOT a vasodilator in the body.

Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) — a toxic air pollutant. NOT produced by the body for this purpose.

Nitrogen pentoxide (N₅O₅) — a reactive chemical compound. Not relevant to human biology.

Fun fact: The discovery that nitric oxide is a signalling molecule in the cardiovascular system won the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1998.
Key learnings →Health
92.
Science and Technology
Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote 'an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items'?
1. ABig data analytics
2. BCryptography
3. CMetaverse
4. DVirtual matrix
Show answer
Answer: (C) Metaverse
Correct Answer: (c) Metaverse.

The metaverse is an interoperable network of shared, immersive 3D virtual worlds where millions of users can interact simultaneously through digital avatars, including buying and owning virtual property and items.

Why the other options are wrong:

Big data analytics — involves analysing large datasets, not virtual worlds.

Cryptography — is about securing information and communications.

Virtual matrix — is not a standard/recognised term for this concept.

Key features of the metaverse:

persistent virtual worlds

millions of simultaneous users

property rights over virtual items

social and economic activity.
Key learnings →IT & Computing
93.
Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct.

Statement I:

Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars — ✗ WRONG.

It's the opposite.

Giant stars burn through their fuel much faster because of their enormous energy output, so they have shorter lifespans (millions of years).

Dwarf stars like our Sun live for billions of years.

Statement II:

Giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions — ✓ CORRECT.

Their cores are hotter and denser, driving faster fusion reactions.

The logic:

More mass

hotter core

faster fuel burning

shorter life.

Think of it like a candle — a bigger flame burns through wax faster.
Key learnings →Space
94.
Science and Technology
Consider the following activities:
1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals
In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
1. AOnly one
2. BOnly two
3. CAll three
4. DNone
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two
Correct Answer: (b) Only two — monitoring precipitation and tracking animal migration.

Radar can monitor precipitation — weather radar sends electromagnetic waves that bounce off rain, snow, and hail, showing their location and intensity. ✓ CORRECT.

Radar can track animal migration — radar detects the movement of bird flocks and insect swarms over large distances. ✓ CORRECT.

Radar CANNOT identify narcotics on passengers — this requires specialised scanners (X-ray, CT, chemical detectors, sniffer dogs), not radar. ✗ WRONG.

Key concept: Radar is great at detecting movement and objects at a distance, but it can't identify the chemical composition of substances.
Key learnings →Space
95.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II : There have been military takeovers/coups detat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Correct Answer: (a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Statement I: The Sahel region has instability and worsening security — ✓ CORRECT.

The Sahel (the semi-arid belt south of the Sahara) has faced armed conflicts, displacement of millions, and severe humanitarian crises.

Statement II: Multiple military coups have occurred in the Sahel recently — ✓ CORRECT.

Since 2020, there have been coups in:

Burkina Faso (2 coups)

Mali (2 coups)

Chad

neighbouring Guinea

The coups are both a cause and a symptom of the instability, so Statement II directly explains Statement I.

The Sahel countries have struggled with governance, armed rebellions, and extremism since independence in the 1960s.
Key learnings →Extended Neighbourhood and Other Regions
96.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Consider the following countries :
1. Italy
2. Japan
3. Nigeria
4. South Korea
5. South Africa
Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population of declining population ?
1. A1, 2 and 4
2. B1, 3 and 5
3. C2 and 4 only
4. D3 and 5 only
Show answer
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: (a) Italy, Japan, and South Korea.

These three countries are frequently in the news for declining birth rates and ageing populations.

Japan has the world's oldest population and its numbers are expected to halve by 2100.

Italy has over 23% of people above 65.

South Korea has one of the lowest fertility rates in the world (projected at 0.68 in 2024).

Nigeria and South Africa are NOT in this category — Nigeria's population is actually booming and is expected to become the world's second-most populous country.

South Africa also doesn't face the same kind of population decline.

Easy elimination:

If an option includes Nigeria or South Africa, it's likely wrong for a 'declining population' question.
Key learnings →Extended Neighbourhood and Other Regions
97.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?
1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B1, 2 and 4
3. C1, 3 and 4
4. D2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: (d) Statements 2, 3 and 4.

Statement 1: India-Bangladesh exercise — ✗ WRONG.

Mitra Shakti-2023 was a joint exercise between India and Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh. This is the main trap.

Statement 2: Commenced in Aundh (Pune) — ✓ CORRECT.

Statement 3: Counter-terrorism was a goal — ✓ CORRECT.

The exercise rehearsed sub-conventional operations under UN Chapter VII.

Statement 4: Indian Air Force participated — ✓ CORRECT.

15 IAF personnel took part, along with helicopters, drones, and counter-drone systems.

Easy way to remember: 'Mitra Shakti' = India + Sri Lanka (bilateral military exercise).

Don't confuse it with India-Bangladesh exercises.
Key learnings →Immediate Neighbourhood (South Asia)
98.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 are correct?

Select the correct answer
1. A1, 2 and 3
2. B1, 2 and 4
3. C1, 3 and 4
4. D2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (D) 2, 3 and 4
Statement 1 is not correct: because Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 was a joint military Exercise between India and Sri Lanka.

Statement 2 is correct: The ninth edition of the Joint Military exercise "Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023" commenced today in Aundh (Pune).

Statement 3 is correct: The goal of the exercise includes synergising joint responses during counter-terrorist operations.

Statement 4 is correct: Because Exercise MITRA SHAKTI - 2023 will also involve employment of Drones and Counter Unmanned Aerial Systems besides helicopters.

Drills to secure helipads and undertake casualty evacuation during counter-terrorist operations will also be rehearsed jointly by both sides.
Withdrawn from the question bankImmediate Neighbourhood (South Asia)
99.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?
1. ABhupendra Yadav
2. BNalin Mehta
3. CShashi Tharoor
4. DSubrahmanyam Jaishankar
Show answer
Answer: (D) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Correct Answer: (d) S. Jaishankar.

Dr. S. Jaishankar, India's External Affairs Minister, is the author of both books.

'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' discusses India's foreign policy from a diplomat's perspective, while 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024) focuses on India's growing role on the global stage.

He is a career diplomat with four decades of experience before entering politics.
Key learnings →India's Foreign Policy Principles
100.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:
1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. A2 only
2. B3 only
3. C1 and 2
4. D2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (A) 2 only
Correct Answer: (a) Statement 2 only.

Statement 1:
It is a UN agency — ✗ WRONG.
The World Toilet Organization is an independent global non-profit founded in 2001, NOT a UN agency.
It was granted consultative status with the UN Economic and Social Council in 2013, but that doesn't make it a UN agency.

Statement 2:
World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day, and World Toilet College are its initiatives — ✓ CORRECT.
WTO established World Toilet Day and the Summit in 2001, and the College in 2005.

Statement 3:
Its main function is granting funds to developing countries — ✗ WRONG.
WTO focuses on education, training, and advocacy — not on funding countries to end open defecation.
Key learnings →News Through Maps
101.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II : Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
1. ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
2. BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
3. CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
4. DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Correct Answer: (a) Both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Statement I: The SUMED pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil/gas shipments to Europe — ✓ CORRECT.

It handles about 12% of seaborne oil trade.

Statement II: The SUMED pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea — ✓ CORRECT.

It runs through Egypt.

Statement II explains Statement I because it's precisely this Red Sea–Mediterranean connection that makes the pipeline strategically important for getting Gulf oil to Europe without going all the way around Africa.

Key fact: SUMED stands for Suez-Mediterranean.

It has a capacity of 2.5 million barrels per day and serves as an alternative to the Suez Canal.
Key learnings →News Through Maps
102.
World Affairs (International Relations)
Consider the following pairs:

Country Reason for being in the news

1. Argentina Worst economic crisis

2. Sudan War between the country's regular and paramilitary forces

3. Turkey Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. AOnly one pair
2. BOnly two pairs
3. CAll three pairs
4. DNone of the pairs
Show answer
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
Correct Answer: (b) Only two pairs are correct (Pairs 1 and 2).

Pair 1 — Argentina + worst economic crisis: ✓ CORRECT.

Argentina has been suffering severe inflation and economic turmoil.

Pair 2 — Sudan + war between regular army and paramilitary: ✓ CORRECT.

Fighting between the Sudanese Army (Gen. al-Burhan) and the Rapid Support Forces (RSF, led by Dagalo) has caused one of the worst humanitarian crises.

Pair 3 — Turkey + left NATO: ✗ WRONG.

Turkey has NOT left NATO.

While Turkey has been a difficult member and has clashed with other NATO countries, it remains a member.

There's no mechanism within NATO to expel a member.

Quick elimination: If you know Turkey is still in NATO (which is basic current affairs), you can immediately eliminate options that include Pair 3.
Key learnings →Thematic / Cross-cutting Issues

	Country	Reason for being in the news
1.	Argentina	Worst economic crisis
2.	Sudan	War between the country's regular and paramilitary forces
3.	Turkey	Rescinded its membership of NATO

End of paper · 102 questions · 2023 paper →

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